9. Which is true for the following experimental techniques?
(A) Yeast two-hybrid analysis is useful for assaying DNA-protein interactions in
vitro.
(B) In chromatin immunoprecipitation (ChIP) analysis, formaldehyde is
commonly used for protein-DNA crosslinking.
(C) Far-western blot analysis is a method to analyze protein-RNA interactions.
(D) The G-less cassette assay is often used to detect protein-protein interactions.

(E) A Southern blot is used to detect specific protein in a tissue sample.

5.A researcher is using degenerate primers to amplify a gene from a newly discovered organism. They designed the primers based on a short peptide sequence from a protein that they think is encoded by the gene. What is the most likely reason that a pool of different primers is needed for PCR amplification in this scenario? (A) The use of degenerate primers ensures that the PCR reaction has multiple binding sites on the DNA template, thus amplifying the sequence more efficiently. (B) The use of degenerate primers ensures the amplification of multiple related. genes. (C) Many amino acids are encoded by multiple codons, so there are several. possible DNA sequences that could code for the same peptide sequence. (D) Degenerate primers help overcome the mispriming that can occur during PCR. (E) Degenerate primers increase the specificity of the PCR reaction.

6.What is the main advantage of using cDNA rather than genomic DNA whencreating an expression library for eukaryotic genes?(A) cDNA is easier to isolate and purify than genomic DNA.(B) cDNA is more stable than genomic DNA.(C) cDNA contains promoter sequences that are needed for expression.(D) cDNA lacks introns, which allows for proper expression in a bacterial host.(E) cDNA is double-stranded, while genomic DNA is single-stranded.

7. What is the function of dideoxynucleotides in Sanger sequencing?(A) To act as primers for DNA synthesis.(B) To label DNA fragments with fluorescent markers.(C) To cut the DNA at specific sequences.(D) To terminate DNA synthesis at specific bases.(E) To amplify the DNA for sequencing.

8.Which is true for eukaryotic RNA polymerase (RNAP) I, II and III? (A) RNAP I and II are found in the nucleoplasm, while RNAP III are found in the nucleolus. (B) Among three RNAPs, RNAP II is insensitive to alpha-amanitin. (C) The 28S, 18S and 5S ribosomal RNA are synthesized by RNAP I, while tRNA and other small RNA are synthesized by RNAP III. (D) Rpb5, Rpb7, Rpb9, Rpb10 and Rpb12 are common subunits for all three RNAPs. (E) RNAP IIA contributes to transcription elongation, while RNAP IIO is involved in the formation of pre-initiation complex.

10.Which statement is not true for TATA-binding protein (TBP) of eukaryoticRNA polymerases (RNAPs)?(A) RNAP III is positioned at promoter by a TFIIIC, which contains TВР.(B) For RNAP II, TBP is a component of the general transcription factor TFIID.(C) For RNAP I in human, the general transcription factor SL1 is composed ofTBP and three TAFS, and binds to the core promoter region.(D) TBP binds to the minor groove of DNA and bends consensus TATA DNA byapproximately 80 degree.(E) In yeast, TFIIB binds specifically to TBP via its C-terminal domain.

11.Which statement is true for the general transcription factors in eukaryoticorganisms?(A) TFIIE, TFIIF and TFIIH are not essential for transcription elongation, butthey are required for promoter clearance.(B) The core-binding factor is the fundamental transcription factor required torecruit RNA polymerase I.(C) During transcription elongation, RNA polymerases may pause at specificsites near promoters, and this pause can be reversed by TFIIB.(D) Transcription of the 5S rRNA gene requires TFIIIA and TFIIIB, but notTFIIIC.(E) TAF2 and TAF5 can bind to TATA-less promoters that contains the Inr andDPE promoter elements to ensure the whole TFIID binding to the promoter.

12. Which of the following RNA undergoes two additional processes known ascapping and tailing?(A) sIRNA(B) tRNA(C) snRNA(D) 5S rRNA(E) hn RNA

複選題13. Which is true for eukaryotic transcription activators? (A) A type II nuclear receptor exists an inactive form in cytoplasm before binding to its ligand. (B) Yeast Gal4 is a Cys2His2 zinc-finger protein, involving in regulation of galactose metabolism. (C) The basic region of a bHLH transcription factor is involved in protein dimerization. (D) Type III nuclear receptors are also known as orphan receptors and bind to DNA as homodimers. (E) In the bZIP transcription factor, the bZIP domain consists of two alpha-helix polypeptides, each with leucine residues separated by 5 amino acids.

14. Choose a correct statement for eukaryotic promoters. (A) Spacing between the core element and upstream promoter element (UPE) is not important for the transcription of class I promoters. (B) At least in Drosophila, TATA-less of class II promoters tend to have downstream promoter elements (DPEs) that are similar to TATA box, bound by TFIIB. (C) Inr (initiator) and the TATA box constitutes a core promoter for the adenovirus major late promoter. (D) The tRNA gene contains an internal promoter, which is split into three regions: box A, a short intermediate element, and Box C. (E) The AT-rich initiator (rINR) is a conserved sequence of class I promoters and is located within the upstream promoter element (UPE).

15. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about the canonicalmicroRNA (miRNA) biogenesis pathway in mammals?(A) Pri-miRNAs are typically transcribed by RNA polymerase II and contain a 5'cap and polyA. tail.(B) The Microprocessor complex, composed of Drosha and DGCR8, cleaves primiRNAs in the nucleus to generate pre-miRNA hairpins.(C) Exportin-5, in a Ran-GTP-dependent manner, exports pre-miRNAs from thenucleus into the cytoplasm.(D) Dicer cleaves the pre-miRNA in the cytoplasm, producing a short duplex(~22 nucleotides), which then undergoes strand selection.(E) The mature miRNA is incorporated into the RNA-induced silencing complex(RISC) through the Drosha-DGCR8 complex.