32. Which of the following statement concerning hypnotic analgesia is least likely:
(A) Hypnosis has been highly associated with theta activity (4~8 Hz) using EEG methods.
(B) Increases in hypnotic relaxation are associated with increases in regional cerebral blood flow in the occipital cortex.
(C) Deep relaxation, dissociated imagery and focused analgesia produced significant reductions on all pain-related measures.
(D) Hypnotic analgesia can be understood as the result of a placebo manipulation, and it is not more than just relaxation.
(E) Descending projections from amygdale, PAG and locus coeruleus contribute to modulate nociceptive processes in the brain stem and the spinal cord

28. Which of the following treatment is NOT the indication for limbs pain induced by increased spasticity after C7 incomplete spinal cord injury? (A) Joint positioning and range-of-motion (ROM) exercises. (B) Treat underlying spasticity-triggering events (infection, pressure ulcer, etc). (C) Serial casting or dynamic splinting to relieve already-occurred contractures. (D) Oral narcotics, like codeine or tramadol. (E) Anti-spasticity blocks via Botulinum toxins, phenol, or ethanol.

29. Which one of the following neuropathic pain conditions is not likely responded to spinal cord stimulation? (A) CRPS type I (B) CRPS type II (C) Central post-stroke pain (D) occlusive peripheral vascular disease (E) diabetic neuropathy.

30. In neuropathic pain, the hyperexcitability demonstrated by wide-dynamic range cells in the dorsal horns seems to be related to increase basal release of excitatory amino acids, such as (A) glutamate. (B) GABA. (C) dopamine. (D) acetylcholine (E) norepinephrine.

31. A typical symptoms of a) myocardial ischemia； b) dyspnea on exertion； c) ST segment elevation or depression in the ECG； d) Q wave in the ECG. The above items included in criteria for acute myocardial infarction are: (A) a and b (B) a, b, and c (C) a, c, and d (D)b, c, and d (E) all of them

33. Which following item is not a criterion for the diagnosis of migraine? (A) Throbbing/stabbing quality (B) Aggravation by or causing avoidance of routine physical activity (C) Unilateral location (D) Moderate or severe pain intensity (E) All are criteria for diagnosis of migraine

34. Which of the following is the unacceptable statement about paracetamol and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) : (A)To treat acute postoperative pain and in the chronic situation for treatment of osteoarthritis, there are differences in efficacy between NSAIDs and paracetamol. (B) To treat acute postoperative pain and in the chronic situation for treatment of osteoarthritis, the efficacy of classical NSAIDs and Coxibs (cyclooxgenase-2-inhibitory non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs) is similar. (C) If oral NSAIDs are taken for at least 6 months, the risk of an endoscopic ulcer is 1 in 5, of a symptomatic ulcer is about 1 in 70, of a bleeding ulcer is about 1 in150, and of a death from a bleeding ulcer about 1 in 1300. (D)Coxibs reduce the gastrointestinal bleeding risk compared with NSAIDs. The risk of congestive heart failure is twice as high with chronic NSAID therapy, and increases to over 20 in patients with a previous history. (E) Paracetamol acts as a Cox inhibitor in the brain, explaining both its analgesic and its antipyretic actions

35. Which of the following is the acceptable statement about the local anaesthetic blocks and epidurals? (A) In the management of chronic pain, diagnostic nerve blocks may help in locating the origin of pain, but are unreliable as prognostic aids for neurolytic or neurodestructive procedures. (B) Pain originating from malfunctioning CNS pain modulation may also be relieved by a peripheral nerve block. (C) Epidural local anaesthetic blocks cannot reliably predict the effect of spinal cord stimulation. (D)“Pulsed radiofrequency” treatment: lower temperature applied； less effective； fewer adverse effect compared with conventional radiofrequency denervation. (E) All of the above

36 Which of the following statements regarding trigeminal neuralgia is FALSE? (A) It affects the fifth cranial nerve. (B) It is usually bilateral and is more common in men under the age of 50. (C) Etiology includes idiopathic, demyelination, or vascular malformations. (D) The majority of patients describe the classic high-intensity, triggerable pain in association with activities such as eating or talking. (E) Even simple things, such as a cold breeze, can trigger a pain episode.

37. Which statement regarding complex regional pain syndrome (CRPS) is TRUE? (A) Causalgia, or burning pain, is now categorized as CRPS type I. (B) The term “reflex sympathetic dystrophy” (RSD), or CRPS type II, refers to a syndrome similar to causalgia but with a specific nerve lesion. (C) Etiology involve only peripheral over-reactions after nerve and/or soft tissue damage. (D) The signs and symptoms in CRPS are heterogeneous； which reflect underlying sensory, autonomic, and motor dysfunctions. (E) Sympathetic blockade is the golden standard of treatment

38. Which of the following statement concerning pain assessment is least likely: (A) Strong test-retest reliability coefficients do not exist for the MiGill Pain Questionnaire (MPQ) PRIs. (B) Rheumatoid arthritis showed a stable pattern of MPQ scores over a 6-year period. (C) MPQ has excellent distinction power between sensory and affective dimensons (D) MPQ is sensitive to interventions designed to reduce pain (E) MPQ can provide an aid in the differential diagnosis between various pain syndromes