所屬科目：學士後西醫物理及化學
1. Atmospheric pressure decreases with altitude, but not in a linear manner. It decreases according to the following formula: P = , where the constant k is given by , P0 is the atmospheric pressure at sea level, and y is the height above sea level. At what height above sea level will the atmospheric pressure be reduced to half? [ln2 = 0.69314] (A) 5545 m (B) 3447 m (C) 5034 m (D) 4790 m (E) 2996 m
2. There are two tuning forks with frequencies 255 Hz and 251 Hz. When both tuning forks start vibrating, what frequency will be heard by the ear? How many times per second can a loud sound be heard? (A) 251 Hz, 2 times each second (B) 255 Hz, 4 times each second (C) 254 Hz, 3 times each second (D) 253 Hz, 4 times each second (E) 252 Hz, 2 times each second
3. The method to correct hyperopia is to wear a convex lens with an appropriate focal length. Suppose a hyperopic person, at the maximum accommodation of the eye's lens (with the minimum curvature radius), can clearly see objects at a distance of 1.5 meters. What should be the focal length of the convex lens required for them to clearly see an object at a distance of 15 cm?(A) 14.0 cm(B) 13.5 cm(C) 22.0 cm(D) 15.0 cm(E) 16.6 cm
4. In an adiabatic compression of an ideal gas, which of the following statements is NOT true? (A) The gas does work on its surroundings. (B) The internal energy of the gas increases. (C) The temperature of the gas increases. (D) The gas absorbs heat from its surroundings. (E) The process results in a change in the state of the gas.
5. The method to correct myopia is to wear a concave lens with an appropriate focal length. Suppose a person has myopia, and the nearest object he/she can clearly see without the accommodation of the lens is at a distance of 45 cm. What should be the focal length of the concave lens required for the person to clearly see objects at infinity? (A) 22.5 cm (B) 45.0 cm (C) 90.0 cm (D) 15.0 cm (E) 60.0 cm
6. The arterial blood pressure in the head and feet of a person standing differs from that when lying down. Suppose the difference (in magnitude) in arterial blood pressure in the head between the lying and standing positions is AP₁, and the difference in arterial blood pressure in the feet between these two positions is AP2. Given that the density of blood is p and the local gravitational field strength is g, find the height of the person. (A) (B) (C)(D)(E)
7. If the ammeter detects a current of A, how many electrons pass through the cross-section of the wire per second? (A) (B) (C)(D) (E)
8. An electrocardiogram (ECG) can detect heart activity because the heart can form an electric dipole under external stimulation. Suppose the capacitance per unit area of a cardiac myocyte (心肌細胞) is C, the total surface area of the cardiac myocyte is A, and the transmembrane voltage is V. Suppose that the thickness of the cardiac myocyte is d. What is the electric dipole moment of a single cardiac myocyte? (A) CVAd (B) CVd (C) CVd/A (D) CV/A (E) CV
9. Nyboer theoretically discovered in 1940 that changes in impedance can be used to determine changes in the cross-sectional area of blood vessels. Impedance is the resistance of a conductor in an alternating current circuit (frequency ω). There are various substances with different resistivities within the human body, so the human body exhibits a significant capacitance. The circuit composed of resistance R and capacitance C can be divided into series and parallel configurations. In the case of resistance and capacitance in series, what is the impedance Z? (A) (B)(C)(D)(E)
10. When the observer and the sound source are stationary relative to each other, the observed frequency is f. Suppose the observer and the source are moving toward each other. If the observer's speed is 0.25v and the source's speed is also 0.25v, where v is the sound speed. What will be the observed frequency? (A) 5f/4 (B) 3f/4 (C) 4f/3 (D) 3f/5 (E) 5f/3
11. In a scenario where a patient is sliding down a ramp during rehabilitation, and friction is present, what happens to the initial total mechanical energy? (A) It is completely converted to kinetic energy. (B) It is completely converted to potential energy. (C) It remains constant. (D) It is partially converted to thermal energy due to friction. (E) It disappears.
12. Effectively, a nerve fiber can be considered as being composed of many individual circuits, where each circuit consists of a battery, a capacitor of capacitance C, and a resistor of resistance R connected in series which is the so-called RC circuit. What is the time constant of the RC circuit? (A) R/C (B) 1/RC (C) RC (D) RC2 (E) CR2
13. High-frequency electromagnetic fields are typically used in medicine to heat internal tissues or organs of the body, such as in surgical cutting. For microwaves with a frequency of Hz, what is their wavelength? Can they be seen with the naked eye? [speed of light is 3×108 m/s] (A) m; invisible (B) m; visible (C) m; invisible (D) m; visible (E)m; invisible
14. X-rays are a commonly used electromagnetic wave in medical imaging technology. Using an X-ray tube to generate X-rays, the shortest wavelength Amin that can be produced is inversely proportional to the voltage V of the tube. This relationship can be expressed by the following equation. = Q/V. What is the value of the constant Q in the equation? Planck constant, an electric charge, and the speed of light are denoted as h, e, and c, respectively. (A) hc (B) e/h (C) e/(hc) (D) hc/e (E) e²/h
15. The dimensions of stress are _____.(A) [M/TL] (B) [M/T2L] (C) [MT/L] (D) [M/L] (E) [MTL]
16. For the Arrhenius equation, k = exp, which of the following statement is CORRECT? (A) The effect of an enzyme is to increase the magnitude of A. (B) The exp (-Ea/RT) term represents the fraction of molecules with a kinetic energy larger than Ea. (C) The reaction rate k is linearly proportional to temperature T. (D) The activation energy Ea is associated with the collision frequency of the reactants. (E) The steric factor of reaction affects the magnitude of Ea.
17. Which of the following are state functions? (A) work, heat, enthalpy (B) heat, enthalpy, energy (C) enthalpy, energy (D) work, heat, enthalpy, energy (E) work, heat
18. The mass of a sample of calcium carbonate powder is measured using weight by difference. If a vial containing calcium carbonate powder has an initial mass of 87.36 ± 0.03 g and a final mass of 76.99 ± 0.03 g, what mass of calcium carbonate was taken? (A) 10.37±0.04 g (B) 10.37±0.03 g (C) 10.370±0.042 g (D) 10.370 ± 0.004 g (E) 10.370 ± 0.005 g
19. Which of the following ionic compounds has (in absolute values) the largest lattice energy; that is, which has the lattice energy most favorable to a stable lattice? (A) LiF (B) Lil (C) CsF (D) MgO (E) CsI
20. What is the key step in the Heck reaction? (A) radical generation (B) carbocation formation (C) palladium-catalyzed oxidative addition and reductive elimination (D) nucleophilic substitution (E) decarboxylation
21. _____is the upward force exerted on an object in a gaseous or liquid fluid. The mass measured by an analytical balance in air is _____ its actual mass. (A) Buoyancy; heavier than (B) Buoyancy; lighter than (C) Electromagnetic force; heavier than (D) Electromagnetic force; lighter than (E) Tare; equal to
22. How many electrons in an atom can have the quantum numbers n = 4, 1 = 2? (A) 18 (B) 32 (C) 2 (D) 6 (E) 10
23. Which of the following options shows the molecules in the order from most polar to least polar? ("=" indicates that two molecules are similarly polar) (A) CF2Cl2 ＞ CF2H2 ＞ CCl2H2 ＞ CH4 = CCl4 (B) CF2H2 ＞ CCl2H2 ＞ CF2Cl2 ＞ CH4 = CCl4 (C) CH4＞ CF2Cl2 ＞ CF2H2 ＞ CCl4 ＞ CCl2H2 (D) CF2Cl2 ＞ CF2H2 ＞ CCl4 ＞ CCl2H2 ＞ CH4 (E) CH4 ＞ CF2H2 ＞ CF2Cl2 ＞ CCl4 ＞ CCl2H2
24. Lead(II) nitrate reacts with sodium chloride in aqueous solution to form a precipitate. What is the net ionic equation for the precipitation process? (A)(B)(C) (D)(E)
25. Which of the following anions is the strongest base? (A)(B)(C)(D)(E)
26. Polystyrene is an addition polymer of styrene. What would be the effect, if some divinylbenzene were added to styrene and then polymerized? (A) The polymer would be more flexible. Divinylbenzene acts as a plasticizer. (B) The polymer would be less flammable than pure polystyrene. (C) There would be an effect, but it cannot be predicted. (D) There would be no effect on the properties of the polymer. (E) Divinylbenzene would act as a cross-linking agent, making the polymer stronger.
27. Which of the following quantum model is most adequate as an approximation to describe an t-electron moving in ẞ-carotene? (A) a particle in a one-dimensional box (B) harmonic oscillator (C) a freely moving particle (D) rotation in two dimensions (E) a rigid rotor
28. Consider the reaction 2NO2(g) → 2NO(g) + O2(g). The concentration of NO2 was measured to be 0.0038 mol/L after 200 s and 0.0033 mol/L after 250 s. Calculate the reaction rate for NO2. (A) (B)(C) (D)(E)
29. A liquid above the packed solid following a centrifugation is called the _____(A) solvonatant (B) analyte (C) serum (D) decanted (E) supernatant
30. Which of the options below shows an INCORRECT chemical formula for the named compound? (A) iron(II) oxide FeO (B) potassium sulfate K2SO4 (C) sodium sulfide NaS (D) zinc nitrate Zn(NO3)2 (E) calcium carbonate CaCO3
31. During the heart's beating process, the activity of cardiomyocytes generates a magnetic field in space. In 1963, Baule and others first recorded the magnetic field generated by the electrical currents in the human heart, leading to the development of magnetocardiography (MCG). Using the Biot-Savart law to estimate the magnetic field. Suppose that I = A is the total current generated by myocardial activity and r = 0.1 m is the distance to the measurement point, what is the order of magnitude of the magnetic field generated by the heart in T? The permeability of free space is µ0=1.26× (T·m/A). (A)T (B) T (C) T (D)T (E) T
32. A particle moving in circular motion on a plane with a radius r has an angular momentum L and mass m. Which of the following expressions represents the centripetal force F of this circular motion? (A) F = mr²L (B) (C) F = rmL (D) (E)
33. Two concentric conducting spheres have an inner sphere of radius a and an outer sphere of radius b. One terminal of a battery is connected to the outer sphere, while the other terminal is grounded (see Figure). What is the capacitance of this system? (A)(B) C = 4πε0(a+b) (C)(D) C = 4πε0β (E) Ο = 4πε0α
34. A beam of light traveling from point A to point B (see Figure) undergoes refraction as the figure shows. If the refractive indices of the top and bottom media are n₁ and n2, respectivly, what is the ratio ? (A) 2/3 (B) 3/2 (C) √8/3 (D) 3/√8 (E) √2/1
35. Consider the circuit in the Figure and assume the battery has no internal resistance. Just after the switch is closed, what is the current in the battery? (A) 0 (B) ε/2R (C) 28/R (D) ε/R (Ε) ε/3R
36. For any given scattering angle 8, this equation
gives the same value for the Compton shift for any wavelength. Keeping that in mind, for which of the following types of radiation is the fractional shift in wavelength at a given scattering angle the largest? (A) radio waves (B) microwaves (C) visible light (D) x-rays (E) infrared
37. A fancy sports car passes Big Ben at a speed of 0.600c. What time interval will the driver measure for a one-second interval on the large clock? (A) 1.67 s (B) 0.600 s (C) 0.800 s (D) 1.00 s (E) 1.25 s
38. The correct form of the Ampère-Maxwell law is (A)(B)(C)(D)(E)
39. When a driver is traveling at a speed of v1, they hear the frequency of a distant whistle as f₁. When they reduce their speed to v2, the frequency of the whistle is heard as f2. The car is moving toward the sound source. Assuming the sound source is stationary relative to the ground, what is the speed of sound? (A)(B)(C)(D)(E)
40. A moving hydrogen atom absorbs a photon and then comes to rest. Assume that the kinetic energy of the hydrogen atom can be neglected. Find the maximum possible wavelength of this photon. The ground state energy of the hydrogen atom is -13.6 eV. [hc=1240 eV.nm] (A) 121.6 nm (B) 243.2 nm (C) 178.6 nm (D) 289.1 nm (E) 342.5 nm
41. As shown in the Figure, a partition divides the space into two sections, A and B. The molar mass of the gas in section A is 14 g, while the molar mass of the gas in section B is 32 g. Assuming the total mass of the gases in A and B is the same, what is the ratio XA/XB of their lengths when equilibrium is reached? (A) 13/5 (B) 13/2 (C) 17/4 (D) 14/3 (E) 16/7
42. A parallel-plate capacitor has plates of area A = 8 m² and separation d = 1.5 mm. A dielectric sheet of the same area and thickness is placed between the plates. The dielectric constant is ɛ = 4.2. Determine the capacitance filled with the dielectric. [vacuum permittivity is ε0 = C/N·m²] (A)F (B)F (C)F (D) F (E)F
43. Suppose a coil has a magnetic dipole moment and is placed in a uniform magnetic field , where I and A are the current and area of the coil, respectively. What is the torque experienced by the coil? The vectors i,j,k are unit vectors corresponding to the x, y, and z axes, respectively. (A)(B) (C) (D) (E)
44. Two electric dipoles are placed horizontally along the x-axis, but one of them is oriented in the opposite direction, as shown in the Figure. Both electric dipoles have the same magnitude p. What is the electric potential V at point A on the z-axis at a distance L? (A)(B) (C)(D)(E)
45. During human respiration, oxygen passes through the alveoli (肺泡) into the bloodstream. Suppose an alveolus is approximated as a sphere with a volumn V = m³ and an internal pressure P = 1.2×105 Pa. The oxygen content inside the alveolus is 25%. If air is treated as an ideal gas and the human body temperature is 37 °C (310 K), what is the number N oxygen molecules in a single alveolus? [Boltzmann constant k = J/K] (A) (B)(C)(D)(E)
46. The sound intensity level is defined as L = 10-log10(1/10) with the unit dB, where I is the sound intensity in units of W/m² and I0 = W/m². If a machine generates a noise level of 84 dB, what will be the noise level if an additional identical machine is turned on? [ = 0.301] (A) 84 dB (B) 168 dB (C) 90 dB (D) 190 dB (E) 87 dB
47. Two stars of masses M and 2M are in a binary star system, orbiting a common center of mass. Which of the following statements is true about their orbital periods? (A) The star with mass Mhas a longer orbital period. (B) The star with mass 2M has a longer orbital period. (C) Both stars have the same orbital period. (D) The orbital periods depend on the distance between the stars. (E) The orbital periods are independent of the masses of the stars.
48. A sample of gas is held in a container at a constant pressure. If the volume is halved, how will the rms (root-mean-square)-speed of the molecules change compared with the original rms-speed? (A) √2 times smaller (B) √2 times greater (C) the same (D) 2 times greater (E) 2 times smaller
49. A person with a volume of 0.08 m³ floats in fresh water (density = 1000 kg/m³). What is the buoyant force acting on the person? (Assume the acceleration due to gravity g is 10 m/s²) (A) 8000 N (B) 800 N (C) 80 N (D) 8 N (E) 0 N
50. A steam of water with a constant flow at 1 kg/s cools a machine. The water enters the machine at 10 °C and leaves at 80 °C. How much thermal energy is removed every minute? The specific heat capacity of water is 4.186 kJ/kg.K.(A) 17.6 MJ(B) 15.1 MJ(C) 251.2 kJ(D) 25.1 kJ(E) 2.5 MJ
51. A hot object at temperature 500 K is moved to contact with a cool object at 300 K, and a heat of 50 kJ flows irreversibly from one to the other. Assume that neighter object changes its temperature. How much is the entropy of the universe changed? (A) 1000 J/K (B) 40 MJ/K (C) 66.7 J/K (D) 62.5 J/K (E) none of the above
52. The Figure shows a planet moving about the sun in an elliptical orbit. Its speeds at the following four points shown in the Figure are , repsectively. Which of the following statement is correct? (A)(B)(C)(D)(E) none of the above
53. A patient is undergoing radiation therapy. A radioactive isotope decays and emits an a particle with an initial velocity of 2×107 m/s. The a particle is slowed down by the Coulomb force from a nearby nucleus, experiencing a deceleration of 5× m/s². How far will the a particle travel before coming to a stop? (A) 0.1 meters (B) 0.2 meters (C) 0.3 meters (D) 0.4 meters (E) 0.5 meters
54. A patient's prosthetic leg, weighing 5 kg, is sliding across the floor with a coefficient of kinetic friction of 0.2. What is the force of friction acting against the leg? (g = 9.8m/s²) (A) 9.8 N (B) 1N (C) 49 N (D) 1.96 N (E) 245 N
55. How long will it take for an oscillator at a frequncy of 2.5 Hz to make 100 vibrations? (A) 250 s (B) 40 s (C) 25 s (D) 4 s (E) 0.025 s
56. Cobalt Co Co has a half-life of 5 years. If there was sample of that isotope with an initial mass of 240 g, how much of the sample remains after 30 years? (A) 30 g (B) 15 g (C) 7.5 g (D) 3.75 g (E) 0.89 g
57. Unpolarized light of the intensity I0 passes through two polaroids. The axis of the first polaroid is vertical. The second polariod is at 30° to the vertical. Find the intensity of the transmitted light. (A) (3/4)I0 (B) (3/8)I0 (C) (1/4)10 (D) (1/8)I0 (E) (1/2)I0
58. The following equation shows the decay process of uranium-238 through the emission of an a-particle: . Which of the following is the element X? (A)(B) (C)(D)(E)
59. Suppose a healthy bone can withstand compressive stress of 181 N/mm² before breaking. If the cross-sectional area of the bone is 3.2 cm², how much weight (in kg) can it support? (gravitational acceleration g = 9.8m/s²) (A) 2790 kg (B) 3240 kg (C) 5910 kg (D) 2072 kg (E) 4790 kg
60. The light intensity incident on a metallic surface produces photoelectrons with a maximum kinetic energy of 2 eV. The light intensity is doubled. Determine the maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons (in eV). (A) 4 eV (B) 2 eV (C) √2 eV (D) 1 eV (E) 8 eV
61. Arrange the steps below in the order required to perform a Kjeldahl Nitrogen Analysis.
I Distillation of ammonia into standard hydrochloric acid.
II Neutralize ammonium to release ammonia.
III Digest the organic sample with boiling sulfuric acid to convert nitrogen to ammonium.
IV Titrate unreacted standard hydrochloric acid with sodium hydroxide. (A) III, II, I, IV (B) II, I, IV, III (C) I, IV, III, II (D) IV, III, II, I (E) III, I, IV, II
62. What is the product of the following reaction? (A)(B)(C)(D)(E)
63. Stray light is a problem for spectrophotometers that are not tightly sealed. What is the main impact of stray light on the recorded absorbance? (A) The apparent absorbance is greater than the true absorbance and increases as the amount of stray light increases. (B) The apparent absorbance is greater than the true absorbance and decreases as the amount of stray light increases. (C) The apparent absorbance is less than the true absorbance and increases as the amount of stray light decreases. (D) The apparent absorbance is less than the true absorbance and decreases as the amount of stray light decreases. (E) It is impossible to determine effect of stray light on measured absorbance.
64. How many unpaired electrons are there in an atom of oxygen in its ground state? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 0 (E) 3
65. A crystal of NaCl is _____ (A) hard, high-melting, and a poor electrical conductor (B) hard, high-melting, and a good electrical conductor (C) soft, low-melting, and a good electrical conductor (D) soft, high-melting, and a poor electrical conductor (E) soft, low-melting, and a poor electrical conductor
66. Which of the following chemical or physical changes is an endothermic process? (A) the evaporation of water (B) the mixing of sulfuric acid and water (C) the freezing of water (D) the combustion of gasoline (E) none of the above
67. The _____ is the electrode at which the reaction of interest occurs. (A) auxillary electrode (B) counter electrode (C) anode (D) cathode (E) working electrode
68. Which of the shown molecules fits the fragmentation pattern of the mass spectrum below the best? (A)(B)(C)(D)(E)
69. Which of the following molecules is optically active? (A)(B)(C)(D)(E) none of the above
70. Rank the following compounds according to increasing solubility in water.
I CH3-CH2-CH2-CH3
II CH3-CH2-O-CH2-CH3
III CH3-CH2-OH
IV CH3-OH (A) I ＜II ＜ IV ＜ III (B) I ＜ III ＜ IV＜ II (C) I ＜II ＜ III ＜ IV (D) III ＜ IV ＜ II ＜ I (E) None of the above is correct.
71. Nitrogen gas (N2) reacts with hydrogen gas (H2) to form ammonia (NH3). At 200°C in a closed container, 1.2 atm of nitrogen gas is mixed with 2.3 atm of hydrogen gas. At equilibrium, the total pressure is 2.1 atm. Calculate the partial pressure of hydrogen gas at equilibrium. (A) 2.3 atm (B) 0.0 atm (C) 1.8 atm (D) 0.20 atm (E) 0.92 atm
72. The corrosion of which transition metal results in a characteristic green patina? (A) lead (B) copper (C) chromium (D) silver (E) iron
73. EDTA is an example of a(n) _____ ligand. (A) hexadentate (B) bidentate (C) octadentate (D) tetradentate (E) tridentate
74. When a molecule absorbs a photon, the molecule is promoted to an excited state M＊. The rate at which M＊ is created is proportional to the concentration of M. There are three pathways that M* may take to return to the ground state. Which statement about these three pathways below is wrong? (A) The rate at which the excited state returns to the ground state is independent of the pathway to the ground state and the concentration of excited state molecules. (B) The three possible pathways to return to the ground state are emission, deactivation, and quenching. (C) Quenching occurs when a second molecule, the quencher Q, collides with M* and energy is transferred from M* to Q: M* + Q→M+Q*. (D) Deactivation returns M* to the ground state by colliding with other molecules and releasing energy in the form of heat: M* → M + heat. (E) Emission returns M* to the ground state by emitting a photon: M* → M + hv.
75. A novel analytical method named ______ may enhance the fluorescence of immunoassays by a factor of 100 by measuring the fluorescence of Eu3+ 200 us after excitation with a laser pulse. (A) time-resolved fluorescence immunoassay (B) time-dependent fluorescence immunoassay (C) immunoassay fluorescence over time immunoassay (D) weakly bound time fluorescence immunoassay (E) europium-bound fluorescence immunoassay
76. Given that S = 131 J/K mol for H2(g), estimate the value of AS for the reaction:
Ti(s) + H2(g) → TiH2(s) (A) 0 J/K (B) 131 J/K (C) -131 J/K (D) 262 J/K (E) -262 J/K
77. Which of the following exhibits the correct (increasing) orders for the atomic radius r and the ionization energy (IE), respectively? (A) r: F＜S＜O, IE: O ＜ S ＜F (B) r: F＜O ＜ S, IE: S ＜O ＜F (C) r: S＜O＜ F, IE: F ＜ O ＜S (D) r: S＜F＜ O, IE: S ＜ F ＜0 (E) none of the above
78. The entropy change of a system (AS) is _____for exothermic reactions and _____ for endothermic reactions. (A) unfavorable, unfavorable (B) favorable, unfavorable (C) favorable, favorable (D) unfavorable, favorable (E) none of the above
79. Using a 400 MHz 1H NMR instrument, if a hydrogen atom shows a quartet at δ = 4.06, 4.03, 4.00, 3.97 ppm, please calculate it's coupling constant. And where will this triplet peak shows up at a 600 MHz H NMR instrument? (A) 12 Hz; δ: 4.035, 4.015, 3.995, 3.975 ppm (B) 12 Hz; δ: 4.045, 4.025, 4.005, 3.985 ppm (C) 12 Hz; δ: 4.025, 4.005, 3.985, 3.965 ppm (D) 6 Hz; δ: 4.045, 4.025, 4.005, 3.985 ppm (E) 6 Hz; δ: 4.035, 4.015, 3.995, 3.975 ppm
80. What is the product of the following reaction? (A)(B)(C)(D)(E)
81. There are many types of noise in instrumental analysis. Which of the following descriptions about the different noise types is INCORRECT? (A) line noise - noise that occurs at discrete frequencies (B) drift noise – low frequency noise caused by flickering or drifting of light intensity (C) Gaussian noise – noise amplitude is dependent on frequency (D) Johnson noise - random fluctuations of electrons in electronic devices (E) shot noise - noise that arises from random variation in the number of photons reaching the detector or small number of electrons and holes generated in a semiconductor
82. One of the optical components of a spectrophotometer that selects the wavelength to irradiate the sample can be called the _____.(A) polychromator (B) monochromator (C) beam splitter (D) light source (E) optode
83. What is the key functional group present in penicillins that is essential for their antibacterial activity? (A) amide (B) carboxyl group (C) B-lactam ring (D) ether (E) thiophene group
84. Indium has atomic number 49 and atomic mass 114.8 g. Naturally occurring indium contains a mixture of indium-112 and indium-115 in an atomic ratio of approximately_____. (A) 25/75 (B) 75/25 (C) 50/50 (D) 94/6 (E) 6/94
85. The OH radical disproportionates according to the elementary chemical reaction OH + OH → H2O + O. This reaction is second order in OH. The rate constant for the reaction is cm³/molecules at room temperature. If the initial OH concentration is molecules/cm³, what is the first half-life for the reaction? (A)(B) 0.030 s (C)(D) 3.9 s (E) 6.0 s
86. The equilibrium process CaCO3 = can be split into several equilibrium processes to give a more complete picture of calcium carbonate's solubility. Which of the following equilibrium equations does not play a role for calcium carbonate's solubility?
(A) (B)(C)(D)(E)
87. For the reaction, CO2(g) + 2H2O(g) → CH4(g) + 2O2(g), AH° = 803 kJ, which of the following will increase K? (A) increasing the temperature of system (B) decreasing the number of moles of methane (C) increasing the volume of system (D) increasing the number of moles of CO2 (E) none of the above
88. The Figure on the right shows the phase diagram for a compound X. You wish to purify a sample of X that was collected at P = 1.0 atm and T = 100 by subliming it. In order to sublime the sample, you should _____.(A) increase T to 300 K and then lower P to 0.5 atm (B) abandon the attempt to sublime X (C) lower P to 0.5 atm and then increase T to 200 К (D) increase P to 1.5 atm and then increase T to 300 K (E) increase T to 300 K, keeping P = 1.0 atm
89. How many of the following electron configurations for the species in their ground state are correct?
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) none
90. What is the product of the following reaction? (A)(B)(C)(D)(E)
阿摩線上測驗
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阿摩線上測驗
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, where the constant k is given by 
, P0 is the atmospheric pressure at sea level, and y is the height above sea level. At what height above sea level will the atmospheric pressure be reduced to half? [ln2 = 0.69314] (A) 5545 m (B) 3447 m (C) 5034 m (D) 4790 m (E) 2996 m
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
A, how many electrons pass through the cross-section of the wire per second? (A)
(B)
(C)
(D) 
(E)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Hz, what is their wavelength? Can they be seen with the naked eye? [speed of light is 3×108 m/s] (A)
m; invisible (B) 
m; visible (C) 
m; invisible (D) 
m; visible (E)
m; invisible
= Q/V. What is the value of the constant Q in the equation? Planck constant, an electric charge, and the speed of light are denoted as h, e, and c, respectively. (A) hc (B) e/h (C) e/(hc) (D) hc/e (E) e²/h
, which of the following statement is CORRECT? (A) The effect of an enzyme is to increase the magnitude of A. (B) The exp (-Ea/RT) term represents the fraction of molecules with a kinetic energy larger than Ea. (C) The reaction rate k is linearly proportional to temperature T. (D) The activation energy Ea is associated with the collision frequency of the reactants. (E) The steric factor of reaction affects the magnitude of Ea.
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
(A) The polymer would be more flexible. Divinylbenzene acts as a plasticizer. (B) The polymer would be less flammable than pure polystyrene. (C) There would be an effect, but it cannot be predicted. (D) There would be no effect on the properties of the polymer. (E) Divinylbenzene would act as a cross-linking agent, making the polymer stronger.
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
A is the total current generated by myocardial activity and r = 0.1 m is the distance to the measurement point, what is the order of magnitude of the magnetic field generated by the heart in T? The permeability of free space is µ0=1.26×
(T·m/A). (A)
T (B)
T (C)
T (D)
T (E)
T
(C) F = rmL (D)
(E)
(A)
(B) C = 4πε0(a+b) (C)
(D) C = 4πε0β (E) Ο = 4πε0α
?
(A) 2/3 (B) 3/2 (C) √8/3 (D) 3/√8 (E) √2/1
(A) 0 (B) ε/2R (C) 28/R (D) ε/R (Ε) ε/3R
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
(A) 13/5 (B) 13/2 (C) 17/4 (D) 14/3 (E) 16/7
C/N·m²] (A)
F (B)
F (C)
F (D) 
F (E)
F
and is placed in a uniform magnetic field 
, where I and A are the current and area of the coil, respectively. What is the torque experienced by the coil? The vectors i,j,k are unit vectors corresponding to the x, y, and z axes, respectively. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
m³ and an internal pressure P = 1.2×105 Pa. The oxygen content inside the alveolus is 25%. If air is treated as an ideal gas and the human body temperature is 37 °C (310 K), what is the number N oxygen molecules in a single alveolus? [Boltzmann constant k = 
J/K] (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
W/m². If a machine generates a noise level of 84 dB, what will be the noise level if an additional identical machine is turned on? [
= 0.301] (A) 84 dB (B) 168 dB (C) 90 dB (D) 190 dB (E) 87 dB
, repsectively. Which of the following statement is correct? 
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E) none of the above
m/s². How far will the a particle travel before coming to a stop? (A) 0.1 meters (B) 0.2 meters (C) 0.3 meters (D) 0.4 meters (E) 0.5 meters
. Which of the following is the element X? (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E) none of the above
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
cm³/molecules at room temperature. If the initial OH concentration is 
molecules/cm³, what is the first half-life for the reaction? (A)
(B) 0.030 s (C)
(D) 3.9 s (E) 6.0 s
can be split into several equilibrium processes to give a more complete picture of calcium carbonate's solubility. Which of the following equilibrium equations does not play a role for calcium carbonate's solubility?
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
(A) increase T to 300 K and then lower P to 0.5 atm (B) abandon the attempt to sublime X (C) lower P to 0.5 atm and then increase T to 200 К (D) increase P to 1.5 atm and then increase T to 300 K (E) increase T to 300 K, keeping P = 1.0 atm
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) none
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)