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112年 - 112 國立中興大學_學士後醫學系招生考試試題_學士後醫學系甲、乙組：普通生物及生化概論#113984

科目：學士後西醫-普通生物及生化概論 | 年份：112年 | 選擇題數：80 | 申論題數：0

試卷資訊

所屬科目：學士後西醫-普通生物及生化概論

選擇題 (80)

1.Which of the following amino acid residues has a side chain that can form hydrogen bonds to other molecules? (A) Leucine (B) Threonine (C) Alanine (D) Glycine
2.Which amino acid displays a free amino group in the tetrapeptide ALA-HIS-ARG-THR? (A)ALA (B) HIS (C) ARG (D) THR
3. The difference between cysteine and homocysteine is the same as between serine and homoserine. This change from the common amino acid is: (A) one additional carboxyl group (B) one additional methylene (-CH2-) bridge (C) two additional amine groups (D) presence of a ring system
4.Which of the following amino acid substitutions would be least likely to have a detrimental effect on protein folding and function?(A) Glu changes to Gln(B) Trp changes to Thr(C) Lys changes to Asp(D) Leu changes to Val

5.Vitamin C (ascorbic acid) prevents scurvy because (A) it is involved in the formation of the proper β-sheet structure of collagen (B) it is important in hydroxylation of prolines and lysines in the primary structure of collagen (C)it  encourages the formation of disulfide linkages in collagen (D) it is an unusual amino acid found in the primary structure of collagen
6.Which of the following amino acid residues would most likely be found in the interior of a globular protein? (A) Isoleucine (B) Arginine (C) Aspartic acid (D) Threonine
7.Quaternary structure of proteins is associated with (A) the overall shape of the polypeptide chain (B) simple proteins with only one subunit (C) the relative orientation of one polypeptide to another polypeptide in a multisubunit protein (D) the sum of secondary and tertiary interactions
8.Which one of the following statements about hemoglobin (Hb) and myoglobin (Mb) is true? (A) Adult Hb binds to oxygen more tightly than Mb binds (B) Fetal Hb binds oxygen more tightly than adult Hb (C) Adult Hb binds oxygen more tightly than either fetal Hb or Mb binds (D) Both Hb and Mb are tetrameric complex proteins
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9.Which of the following is a disorder caused by a genetic mutation in the keratin gene? (A) Cystic fibrosis (B) Alzheimer's disease (C) Epidermolysis bullosa (D) Sickle cell anemia
10. Which of the following statements about lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) is true? (A) An enzyme that breaks down lactose in milk (B) An enzyme that converts lactate to pyruvate during cellular respiration (C) An enzyme that converts pyruvate to lactate during anaerobic respiration (D) An enzyme that breaks down glycogen in the liver
11. If the y-intercept of a Lineweaver-Burk plot = 1.23 (sec/millimole) and the slope = 23.3 L/sec, KM equals: (A) 0.0348mM (B) 0.0527 mM (C) 18.9 mM (D) 28.7 mM
12. The Michaelis-Menten constant (KM) is (A) a rough measure of the affinity of the enzyme for the substrate (B) a measure of the resistance of the enzyme to denaturation (C) related to the molecular weight of the enzyme (D) a reflection of the percentage of polar amino acids in the enzyme
13. Which of the following statements about ATCase is true? (A) ATCase is an enzyme involved in glycolysis (B) ATCase is allosterically regulated by ATP and CTP (C) ATCase catalyzes the conversion of aspartate and carbamoy! phosphate into citrulline (D) ATCase is found exclusively in prokaryotes
14. Which of the following types of amino acids in an active site is most unlikely to be involved in enzyme catalysis? (A) Those with hydrophilic, neutral side-chains (B) Those with negatively charged side-chains (C) Those with positively charge side-chains (D) Those with hydrocarbon side-chains
15. What is the primary difference between chymotrypsin and trypsin? (A) Chymotrypsin cleaves peptide bonds between amino acids with basic side chains, while trypsin cleaves peptide bonds between amino acids with acidic side chains (B) Chymotrypsin is secreted by the pancreas, while trypsin is secreted by the stomach (C) Chymotrypsin cleaves peptide bonds between amino acids with aromatic side chains, while trypsin cleaves peptide bonds between amino acids with basic side chains (D) Chymotrypsin is involved in the absorption of amino acids in the small intestine, while trypsin is involved in the breakdown of carbohydrates
16. Which of the following is true about phospholipids, sphingolipids, and cholesterol? (A) All three are amphipathic molecules (B) All three contain a glycerol backbone (C) All three are primarily found in the plasma membrane (D) All three have a similar chemical structure AINN
17. Which of the following is true about triacylglycerol and lipase? (A) Triacylglycerol is a type of enzyme, while lipase is a type of lipid (B) Triacylglycerol is main constituents of body fat in humans, while lipase might be involved in signal transduction (C) Triacylglycerol and lipase are both found in the plasma membrane (D) Triacylglycerol and lipase are both primarily involved in carbohydrate metabolism
18. Which of the following four fatty acids has the lowest melting point? (A) CH3(CH2)10COOH (B) CH3(CH2)20COOH (C) CH3(CH2)5CH=CH(CH2)7COOH (D) CH3CH2(CH=CHCH2)5(CH2)2COOH
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19 What type of receptor is the Acetylcholine receptor (AchR)? (A) Ion channel receptor (B) G-protein coupled receptor (C) Enzyme-linked receptor (D) Nuclear receptor
20. Which of the following best describes the function of the transducer in G protein-coupled receptor (GPCR) signaling? (A) G protein binds to extracellular ligands and triggers a conformational change in the GPCR (B) G protein catalyzes the conversion of GTP to GDP, which in turn activates downstream effectors (C) G protein couples the activated GPCR to downstream effector proteins, such as ion channels or enzymes (D) G protein acts as an intracellular signaling molecule that mediates the effects of GPCR activation on gene expression
21. Which of the following statements about insulin is correct? (A) Insulin binds to its receptor on liver and muscle cells, which activates a signaling cascade that leads to the activation of glucose transporters (GLUT4) and enzymes involved in glycogen synthesis (B) Insulin activates glycogen phosphorylase, which breaks down glycogen into glucose and promotes its uptake by cells (C) Insulin inhibits the activity of glucagon, which promotes glycogen synthesis and glucose uptake in liver and muscle cells (D) Insulin binds to its receptor on adipose cells, which activates a signaling cascade that leads to the uptake of glucose and its storage as glycogen in liver and muscle cells
22. Which of the following statements about the Ras protein is true? (A) It is a tumor suppressor gene that helps prevent the development of cancer (B) It is a proto-oncogene that can become mutated and promote cancer development (C) It is involved in DNA repair and helps maintain genomic stability (D) It is a viral gene that is incorporated into the host genome and causes cancer
23. Which of the following is true about ATP synthesis by F1F0 ATPase (A) The Fi subunit is responsible for catalyzing ATP synthesis using ADP as the precursor (B) ATP synthesis is driven by the electron motive force generated by the electron transport chain (C) The Fi subunit pumps protons across the mitochondrial inner membrane (D) ATP synthesis occurs in the mitochondrial outer membrane
24. Which of the following is a common second messenger in signal transduction pathways? (A) Epinephrin (B) Inositol triphosphate (C) GABA (D) Acetylcholine
25. What is the function of nuclear receptors (A) To bind to steroid hormones in the nucleus and promote the transcription of specific genes (B) To bind to specific neurotransmitters and initiate a signaling cascade (C) To bind to cytokines on nucleus membrane and regulate the gene expression (D) To transport extracellular signaling molecules into the nucleus

26. Which one of the following molecules containing a glycosidic bond? (A)β-D-galactosamine. (B) methyl-B-D-glucoside. (C) 2-deoxy-a-D-ribose. (D) β-D-glucose-6-phosphate. (E) a-D-fructose-1,6-bisphosphate.
27.The statements below for 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate (2,3-BPG) are correct EXCEPT: (A) erythrocytes typically have high levels of 2,3-BPG. (B) 2,3-BPG is synthesized from 1,3-BPG. (C) a kinase converts 2,3-BPG to 3-phosphoglycerate. (D) 2,3-BPG is involved in unloading oxygen from hemoglobin. (E) bisphosphoglycerate mutase is an isomerase.
28. Which one of the glycolytic enzymes below generates a mixed anhydride from phosphoric acid? (A) enolase. (B) phosphofructokinase. (C) glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase. (D) phosphoglycerate kinase. (E) aldolase.
29.Order the coenzymes according to their participation sequence within pyruvate dehydrogenase complex. A. NAD+, B. CoA-SH, C. TPP, D. Lipoate (lipoamide), E. [FAD] (A) A, B,C,D,E (B) C, B, A, E,D (C) C, D, B, E, A (D) B, D, E, A, C (E) C, E, D, B, A

30. Which of the following processes constitute the two-step reaction catalyzed by isocitrate dehydrogenase involves? A. β-decarboxylation expelling the a-keto carboxyl as CO2., B. oxidation of the C-2 alcohol of isocitrate to form oxalosuccinate.,C. oxidation of the C-2 alcohol to form oxaloacetate., D.  β-elimination expelling the central carboxyI group as CO2. (A) A and B (B) Band C (C) Cand D (D) A and C (E) Band D
31 .All of statements below are characteristics of the malate-aspartate shuttle EXCEPT: (A) OAA translocates inner mitochondrial membrane. (B) electrons of cytosolic NADH are translocated to mitochondrial NADH. (C) uses two malate dehydrogenase enzymes. (D) reactions are reversible. (E) involves transamination.
32. Which of the following path describe the electron flow in the mitochondria? (A) NADH → FMN Coenzyme Q → Cyt A -Cyt B →Cyt C→O2 (B) NADH →FMN →Cyt B →Coenzyme Q → Cyt C → Cyt A →O2 (C) FMNH2 →NAD →Coenzyme Q  →Cyt B →Cyt C → Cyt A → O2 (D) NADH →FMN →Coenzyme Q  →Cyt B →Cyt C → Cyt A →O2 (E)NADH  →FMN → Cyt B  →Cyt C →Coenzyme Q →Cyt A →O2
33. Which of the following enzymes is used in both gluconeogenesis and glycolysis? (A) fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase (B) glucose-6-phosphatase (C) pyruvate carboxylase (D) phosphoglucoisomerase (E) PEPcarboxykinase
34. The statements below are characteristics of glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase EXCEPT: (A) located in the mitochondria. (B) strongly inhibited by [NADPH]. (C) inhibited by fatty acid-CoA. (D) uses NADP+ as a coenzyme. (E) forms a cyclic ester (lactone) of 6-phosphogluconate.

35. Which of the following three reactions can be catalyzed by a transketolase in the pentose phosphate pathway?
Ⅰ fructose-6-P + glyceraldehyde-3-P xylulose-5-P + erythrose-4-P

 II. erythrose-4-P + fructose-6-P    sedoheptulose-7-P + glyceraldehyde-3-P
III. sedoheptulose-7-P + glyceraldehyde-3-P    ribose-5-P + xyulose-5-P (A) I only (B) II and IIl (C) II only (D) I and IIl (E) I and II
36. Which one of the statements below concerning biotin and gluconeogenesis is false? (A) Biotin is used to add CO2 to certain intermediates in gluconeogenesis. (B) CO2 is incorporated into the glucose product. (C) Biotin is capable of binding covalently to CO2. (D) Biotin helps synthesize an important precursor of phosphoenolpyruvate. (E) ATP hydrolysis is required to attach CO2 to biotin.
37.Which of the following order is correct for transport of fatty acyl groups from the cytosol into the matrix? A. carnitine acyltransferase, B. tranaslocase of carnitine and O-acylcarnitine, C. carnitine palmitoyltransferase II, D. fatty acyl-CoA synthesis, E. O-acylcarnitine formation (A) C, B, D, A,E (B) D, B,E,A,C (C) D, E, A, C,B (D) D, A, E, B, C (E) A, D, E, B, C

38.During the elongation cycle of fatty acid biosynthesis, the correct sequence of enzyme catalyzed reactions is: A. β-ketoacyl-ACP synthase, B. β-ketoacyl reductase, C. β-hydroxyacyI dehydratase, D. enoyl reductase, E. acetyl transferase (A) A, B, C, D,E (B) C, B, D,E,A (C) B, A, C, D, E (D) A, C, B, E,D (E) D,E, A, B, C
39. The correct order for the synthesis of mevalonate from acetyl-CoA is: A.HMG-CoA synthase, B. formation of 3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl-CoA, C. β-ketothiolase catalyzed condensation, D. HMG-CoA reductase activity, E. Formation of acetoacetyl-CoA (A) E, C, D, A,B (B) C, D. A. B, E (C) E, B, A, C, D (D) E, A, B, D,C (E) C, E, A, B,D
40. What is the correct order of the following four reactions to achieve β-oxidation of fatty acids? Cleavage of acetyl-CoA from the fatty acid., 2.Hydration of a double bond., 3. Formation of a C-C double bond., 4. Oxidation of an alcohol. (A)1→2→3→4 (B) 4→3→2→1 (C) 3→2→4→1 (D) 2→4→3→1 (E) 1→4→3→2 NG HSING UNI
41. Which of the following molecule is synthesized in the cytosol and transported to the mitochondrial matrix for subsequent reaction during the urea cycle? (A) citrulline (B) ornithine (C) argininosuccinate (D) aspartate (E) fumarate
42. Which type of the following reaction is responsible for generating UMP from OMP during nucleotide biosynthesis? (A) reduction (B) decarboxylation (C) oxidation (D) condensation (E) hydrolxylation NATION
43. Which form of the folate coenzyme below is directly involved in the synthesis of the purine ring? (A) N5,N10-methenyl THF (B) N10-formyl THF (C) N5-formyl THF (D) tetrahydrofolate (E) dihydrofolate
44.During a transition mutation, an Adenine will be replaced by: (A) T. (B) C. (C) U. (D) G. (E) either T or C
45. Which one of the following statements best describes the structure of a nucleosome ? (A) DNA wrapped around an octamer that contains two each of H2A, H2B, H3, and H4 with H1 on the outside. (B) DNA wrapped around an octamer of H1 with H2A,B, H3 & H4 on the outside. (C) DNA wrapped around an octamer of either H2A/H2B or H3/H4 with H1 on the outside. (D) DNA wrapped around a tetramer of either H2A/H2B or H3/H4 with H1 on the outside. (E) None of these
46. Which one of the descriptions below about RNA polymerase III is correct? (A) is located in the nucleolus and transcribes the RNA genes of large and small ribosome subunits. (B) is located in the nucleoplasm and transcribes the protein-encoding genes through mRNAs. (C) transcribes the 5S RNA genes. (D) transcribes genes associated with tRNA processing. (E) transcribes tRNA genes and protein transport genes.
47. Which of the eukaryotic RNA polymerase below is/are resistant to a-amanitin in eukaryotic cells? (A) I only. (B) II only. (C) III only. (D) I and III. (E) I, II and Ill.
48. Which one of the below is required for RNA splicing to occur? (A) a free 5' hydroxyl created by hydrolysis of the phosphate ester bond (B) a cyclic phospodiester at the 3' end of the RNA molecule (C) a2' hydroxyl group (D) the enzyme splicase (E) a poly-A tail VNOILYN
49. The function of the soluble translation factor EF-Tu is: (A) binds GTP promoting translocation of ribosomes along mRNA. (B) displaces GDP from the elongation complex. (C) binds aminoacyl-tRNA in the presence of GTP. (D) binds initiator tRNA and GTP. (E) binds to 30 S subunit and drives mRNA binding.
50. The linkage between the tRNA and an amino acid in an amino-acyl tRNA complex is mediated by? (A) an amide (B) an acyl phosphate (C) a hydroxylamine (D) an ether (E) an ester
51. Which of the following is the common pathway for how a protein is synthesized and secreted by cells? (A) RER→ lysosome→ Golgi apparatus→plasma membrane (B) Golgi apparatus→RER →transport vesicles →plasma membrane (C) RER →Golgi apparatus→  transport vesicles→plasma membrane (D) RER→ transport vesicles →Golgi apparatus→nucleus (E) RER→  lysosome→  transport vesicles→plasma membrane
52. Endomembrane system modulates protein traffic and performs metabolic functions. Which of the following organelle is NOT included in the endomembrane system? (A) mitochondria (B) endoplasmic reticulum (C) Golgi apparatus (D) endosome (E) lysosome
53. Which of the following statements about catabolic pathways is correct? a) degrade complex organic molecules rich in potential energy into simpler waste products with less energy, b) fermentation is a partial degradation of sugars with the use of oxygen, c) aerobic respiration is the most efficient catabolic pathway, d) some prokaryotes harvest chemical energy without oxygen, known as anaerobic respiration, e) catabolism is linked to work by a chemical shaft-GTP. (A) abc (B) abd (C) acd (D) abce (E) ace
54. Which phase of mitosis is characterized by centrosomes located at the opposite pole and chromosomes aligned at the equator of cells? (A) prophase (B) prometaphase (C) metaphase (D) anaphase (E) telophase
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55. Which of the following statements about mitosis and meiosis in animals is correct? a) only occurs in diploid cells, b) DNA duplication occurs during prophase before mitosis and meiosis I, c) cell division occurs once in mitosis and meiosis, d) synapsis of homologous chromosomes occurs in meiosis, e) produce two (diploid) or four (haploid) daughter cells with the identically genetic background of parent cells. (A) abc (B) abd (C) acde (D) bde (E)一律給分
56. Albinism is a congenital disease due to the loss of melanin in animals. One man got married to a woman, but they did not conceive that both of them are carriers of albinism. If they give birth to two children, what is the probability of both offspring being aflicted with this disease? (A) 1/2 (B) 1/4 (C) 1/8 (D) 1/16 (E) 1/64
57. Watson and Crick built an antiparallel double helix model structure of DNA. Which type of bond holds two strands of DNA together? (A) covalent bond (B) hydrogen bond (C) Van der Waals interaction (D) ionic bond (E) metallic bond
58. Transcription generates pre-mRNA and undergoes modification with 5'cap and 3' poly-A tail. Which of the following statements about the structure and function of these pre-mRNA alterations is NOT correct? (A) poly-A tails are usually consisting of 50-250 adenine (B) facilitate the export of mature mRNA from the nucleus (C) protect mRNA from hydrolytic degradation (D) help ribosomes attach to 3' end of mRNA in cytosol (E) none
59. Which of the following statements about sickle cell anemia is correct? a) hereditary disease, b) missense mutation of hemoglobin, c) carriers are afflicted by this disease, d) deleterious effects on kidney and brain, e) severe symptoms lead to death at the elderly population. (A) abc (B) abd (C) abcd (D) ade (E) abde
60. The RNA-guided Cas9 nuclease and clustered regularly interspaced short palindromic repeats (CRISPR) enable efficient genome engineering in eukaryotic cells. Which of the following statements about this system is correct? a) originally belong to the microbial adaptive immune system, b) RNA- guided Cas9 nuclease cleaves genetic elements, c) engages DNA repair system, d) a useful tool for specific gene knockdown, e) insertion or deletion usually leads to frameshift mutations. (A) abd (B) abcd (C) bde (D) abce (E) all
61. Noncoding RNAs play multiple roles in regulating gene expression. Which of the following statements about noncoding RNA is correct? a) noncoding RNAs include microRNAs, piwi-interacting RNAs, mRNAs, and long noncoding RNAs, b) noncoding RNAs can be translated into polypeptides, c) long noncoding transcript of XIST is essential for condensation of heterochromatin, d) microRNA-protein complexes recognize target mRNA and block its translation, e) piwi-interacting RNAs play an indispensable role in germ cells of animal species. (A) abc (B) bcd (C) bcde (D) acde (E) cde
62. Which of the following mechanism is NOT how bacteria defend against phage infection? (A) bacteria with mutant receptors unrecognizable to phages (B) restriction enzymes degrade exogenous genetic elements (C) type II topoisomerases facilitate conformational changes of DNA during replication and transcription (D) CRISPR-Cas system (E) none
63. COVID-19 pandemic outbreak leads to millions of death globally and these catastrophes are caused by the life-threatening SARS-CoV-2. Which of the following statements about the SARS-CoV-2 is NOT correct? (A) belongs to coronavirus carrying single-stranded RNA (B) only affects the upper and lower respiratory tracts (C) accesses host cells via the receptor for ACE2 (D) uses glycoprotein spike to connect to ACE2 receptor (E) none
64. Myoneural junction plays a role in innervation of muscle fiber. Please arrange in order the following processes of muscle contraction. a) calcium release from sarcoplasmic reticulum, b) acetylcholine released into synaptic cleft, c) sarcolemma depolarization d) myosin IiI swivels to approximate active site of actin molecule, e) troponin C aids in unmasking active site of active molecule f) moving thin filament toward center of sarcomere. (A) abcdef (B) bacdef(C) bcadef (D) cbaedf(E) bcaedf
65. Which of the following tissue is NOT one of the four fundamental tissue types in animals? (A) epithelial tissue (B) connective tissue (C) adipose tissue (D) muscle tissue (E) nervous tissue
66. Polar bear hibernation behavior relies on which type of tissue and organelle to survive under frigid winter in the arctic pole? (A) white adipose tissue； rough ER (B) white adipose tissue； smooth ER (C) brown adipose tissue； rough ER (D) brown adipose tissue； smooth ER (E) brown adipose tissue； mitochondria
67. Which of the following statements about the endocrine system is NOT correct? (A) hormones are secreted into the bloodstream (B) hormone binding needs specific receptors presented on target cells (C) heart is not an endocrine organ (D) insulin secreted from pancreas promotes cellular uptake of glucose (E) leptin secreted by adipose tissue suppresses appetite
68. Coagulation is a delicate mechanism controlling clot formation and preventing blood drainage. What kind of dietary deficiency and clotting factor deficiency would lead to defective blood clotting and hemophilia? (A) vitamin E； factor VII (B) vitamin B12； factor VIII (C) vitamin E； von Willebrand factor (D) vitamin B12； von Willebrand factor (E) phylloquinone； factor VIII
69. Which of the following statements about the estrus cycle is NOT correct? (A) each cycle takes approximately 28 days to complete (B) FSH stimulates follicle growth (C) LH surge promotes ovulation (D) corpus luteum secrets progesterone and estradiol to elicit a positive feedback loop to stimulate GnRH releasing from hypothalamus (E) elderly women undergo menopause, the cessation of ovulation and menstruation
70. Which brain structure is associated with emotional memory, especially for the sensation of fear? (A) nucleus accumbens (B) corpus callosum (C) amygdala (D) Wernicke's area (E) hippocampus
71. Which of the following factors can contribute to genetic variation in a population? (A) Mutation (B) Natural selection (C) Genetic driftt (D) Gene flow (E) All of the above
72. Which of the following statements about the evolution of seed plants is true? (A) Seed plants evolved from ferns. (B) Seed plants first appeared in the Devonian period. (C) Seeds allowed plants to reproduce without water. (D) Gymnosperms produce flowers and fruits. (E) Angiosperms first appeared in the Carboniferous period.
73. Which of the following statements accurately describes the life cycle of fungi? (A) Fungi reproduce asexually through fragmentation. (B) Fungi have a diploid dominant life cycle. (C) Fungi produce spores that are dispersed by wind or water. (D) Fungi produce seeds that are enclosed in a fruiting body. (E) Fungi have a single-celled life cycle.
74. Which of the following protists is responsible for causing malaria in humans? (A) Euglena (B) Paramecium (C) Trypanosoma (D) Plasmodium (E) Amoeba
75. Which of the following diseases is caused by archaea? (A) Tuberculosis (B) Cholera (C) Influenza (D) Lyme disease (E) None of the above
76. If a population of beetles initially consists of 50 individuals, and 10 of them have a gene that confers resistance to pesticides, what is the frequency of this gene in the population? (A)0.1 (B) 0.2 (C) 0.4 (D) 0.6 (E) 0.8
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77. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of plant meristems? (A) They are regions of active cell division. (B) They contain undifferentiated cells that give rise to all plant tissues. (C) They are found only in the tips of stems and roots. (D) They allow plants to continue growing throughout their lives. (E) They are the sites of hormone synthesis in plants.
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78. What is the carrying capacity of a population that grows according to the logistic growth model if the intrinsic growth rate is 0.2 and the population size is currently 800 individuals? (A)1,000 (B) 2,000 (C)4,000 (D)8,000 (E)一律給分
79. Plant species A has a diploid chromosome number of 12. Plant species B has a diploid number of 16. A new species, C, arises as an allopolyploid from A and B. The diploid number for species C would probably be (A) 14. (B) 16. (C) 28. (D) 56. (E) 102.
80. Community have four different species (A to D) as follows: A:20%、B:20%·C:30%、D:30% What is the Shannon diversity index (H) of community? (A)0.986. (B) 1.624. (C) 0.828. (D) 1.366 (E) 2.569

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