113年 - 113 學士後醫學系招生考試試題：普通生物及生化概論#119349

1. In the process of photosynthesis, which component is responsible for absorbing light energy and initiating the light-dependent reactions? (A) ATP synthase (B) carbon dioxide (CO₂) (C) water (H₂O) (D) antenna pigments in photosystem II (E) rubisco enzyme

2. What is the sexual process in Paramecium? (A) conjugation (B) fission (C) budding (D) meiotic division (E) multiple division

3. The Malpighian tubules are important for excretory function in _____. (A) birds (B) flatworms (C) insects (D) jellyfish (E) frog

4. Which of the following molecules is produced by the citric acid cycle participating in the electron transport chain on the mitochondrial inner membrane to generate ATP? (A) GAPDH (B) FADH (C) ADP (D) NADH (E) NADPH

5. What principle does nonrandom mating, such as assortative mating, violate in the context of population genetics? (A) the principle of independent assortment (B) the Hardy-Weinberg principle (C) the principle of segregation (D) the law of thermodynamics (E) the principle of uniformitarianism

6. More than 80% of the world's staple food comes from _____. (A) bryophytes (B) monocots (C) lycophytes (D) eudicots (E) gymnosperms

7. In plants, lateral root formation is initiated from _____. (A) cortex (B) endodermis (C) epidermis (D) pericycle (E) pith

8. Red tides in water bodies are caused by _____. (A) bacteria (B) cyanobacteria (C) dinoflagellates (D) green algae (E) red algae

9. In the bacterial CRISPR-Cas system, Cas protein interacts with _____ to target invading phage DNA. (A) CRISPR RNA (B) CRISPR DNA (C) CRISPR nuclease (D) CRISPR peptide (E) restriction enzyme

10. Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase used radioactive phosphorus to trace the DNA of T2 phage in infected bacterial cells in their experiment. They finally demonstrated that _____. (A) DNA replication is semiconservative (B) genetic material is DNA (C) DNA is a double helix (D) there is a replication fork during cell division (E) DNA is in the linear form

11. Sleeping pills like benzodiazepines mainly induce calmness and sedation by enhancing which neurotransmitter? (A) serotonin (B) glutamate (C) acetylcholine (D) dopamine (E) GABA

12. Which of the following molecules and ions does NOT act as secondary messenger in signaling pathways? (A) cAMP (B) receptor tyrosine kinase (C) inositol triphosphate (D) diacylglycerol (E) calcium

13. Non-flowering vascular plants include _____.

① angiosperms ② ferns ③ gymnosperms ④ liverworts ⑤ mosses (A) ②③④⑤ (B) ②③④ (C) ②③ (D) ②③⑤ (E) ④⑤

14. The characteristics or structures only found in angiosperms but NOT in gymnosperms include _____.

① double fertilization ② flower ③ vessel element ④ sieve tube ⑤ annual growth habit (A) ①②③④⑤ (B) ①②④⑤ (C) ①②③⑤ (D) ①②③④ (E) ②③④

15. In one of Mendel's experiments, he crossed pea plants that were true-breeding for violet flower color with plants true-breeding for white flower color. What was the phenotype ratio of flower color in the F2 generation? (A) 100% violet (B) 100% white (C) 75% violet and 25% white (D) 50% violet and 50% white (E) 25% violet and 75% white

16. The prosthetic group of mitochondrial NADH dehydrogenase is _____. (A) FMN (B) FAD (C) NADH (D) NADPH (E) Heme

17. Which of the following statements is FALSE? (A) Two-dimensional electrophoresis separates proteins of different molecular weights and pIs. (B) Size exclusion chromatography separates proteins based on molecular weight. (C) SDS polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis separates proteins based on their molecular weight. (D) Ion exchanger chromatography separates proteins based on their pIs. (E) The column matrix with bound anionic groups is called cation exchanger.

18. A sequence of amino acids in a certain protein is found to be –Ser–Gly–Pro–Gly–. The sequence is most probably part of a(n) _____. (A) antiparallel β sheet (B) parallel β sheet (C) α helix (D) α sheet (E) β turn

19. Concerning human prion protein amyloid, the protein aggregation is due to the formation of _____. (A) huge circled α helix (B) large parallel β sheet (C) extensive region of α helix and little β sheet (D) large scale of α helix embedding amylase (E) α helix and little β sheet associated with polysaccharide

20. Which amino acids in proteins can undergo post-translational farnesylation? (A) cysteine (B) glycine (C) lysine (D) asparagine (E) serine

21. Which of the following vitamins enter the cell nucleus to bind to nuclear receptor and to regulate gene expression? (A) riboflavin and vitamin K (B) pantothenic acid and vitamin E (C) retinol and thiamine (D) thiamine and pantothenic acid (E) retinoic acid and vitamin D

22. In the presence of an enzyme inhibitor, the Vmax decreases and the apparent Km decreases as well, giving two parallel lines in the Lineweaver-Burk plot. What is this inhibitor called? (A) competitive inhibitor (B) mixed inhibitor (C) noncompetitive inhibitor (D) uncompetitive inhibitor (E) suicide inhibitor

23. Which of the following proteins is NOT involved in DNA replication? (A) nuclease (B) gyrase (C) helicase (D) single-strand binding protein (E) primase

24. Which non-histone chromosomal protein helps holding sister chromatids together immediately after replication? (A) condensins (B) cohesins (C) helicase (D) topoisomerase (E) telomerase

25. Which of the following activities of E. coli DNA polymerase I allows it to remove RNA primers during lagging strand synthesis? (A) 3' to 5' exonuclease activity (B) 3' to 5' polymerase activity (C) 5' to 3' exonuclease activity (D) 5' to 3' polymerase activity (E) Endonuclease activity

26. Which glycosidic bond between two monosaccharide molecules is FALSE? (A) α(1→1) (B) α(1→4) (C) α(1→6) (D) β(1→1) (E) β(1→4)

27. Because skeletal muscle do not contain _____, glycogen in skeletal muscle cannot be a source of blood glucose. (A) glucose-6-phosphatase (B) glycogen phosphorylase (C) phosphoglucomutase (D) glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase (E) phosphorylase

28. Which of the following conditions concerning de novo purine ribonucleotide synthesis is FALSE? (A) Glutamate is a direct source of nitrogen atom for the purine ring. (B) The utility of PRPP is committed step in the synthesis of phosphoribosylamine. (C) Aspartate is a direct source of nitrogen atom for the purine ring. (D) IMP is an intermediate in the synthesis of GMP and AMP. (E) De novo synthesis of purine ribonucleotide would be inhibited by methotrexate.

29. Which compound is NOT an intermediate for the biosynthesis of cholesterol? (A) mevalonate (B) isopentenyl pyrophosphate (C) farnesyl pyrophosphate (D) squalene (E) cholate

複選題
30. Which of the following statements about lipoproteins is TRUE? (A) Chylomicrons carry the dietary fat from peripheral tissues to the intestine. (B) VLDL carries TG from the liver to peripheral tissues. (C) VLDL contains ApoB-100. (D) Chylomicrons contain ApoE. (E) LDL contains ApoB-48.

31. In evolutionary biology, what is adaptive radiation, and where is it most likely to occur? (A) It is the rapid evolution of a single species into multiple forms to fill different ecological niches, often seen in isolated environments like islands. (B) It is the process by which species adapt to urban environments. (C) It is the gradual change of a species over time in response to environmental changes. (D) It refers to the radiation of electromagnetic waves by organisms. (E) It is the diversification of species to occupy the same ecological niche.

32. In the life cycle of true plants, the _____ are diploid.

① gamete ② gametophyte ③ spore ④ sporophyte ⑤ zygote (A) ②③④⑤ (B) ②④⑤ (C) ②③⑤ (D) ④⑤ (E) ②⑤

33. Which of the followings is NOT a role of carbohydrates in the extracellular matrix? (A) providing structural support to plant cell walls (B) facilitating cell adhesion in animal tissues (C) acting as a lubricant in joint movements (D) regulating cell growth and proliferation (E) storing genetic information in cells

34. How does the sodium-potassium pump contribute to the negative charge inside a cell? (A) by expelling more sodium ions than potassium ions it brings in (B) by absorbing more sodium ions than potassium ions it expels (C) by maintaining an equal balance of sodium and potassium ions (D) by converting sodium ions into potassium ions inside the cell (E) by moving anions in and out of the cell in addition to cations

35. Which of the followings is a characteristics that can be found in fungi? (A) They perform photosynthesis. (B) They have a cellulose cell wall. (C) They store energy as glycogen. (D) They are primarily autotrophic. (E) They reproduce only asexually.

36. Enveloped viruses are sensitive to ethanol. Which of the following viruses cannot be prevented by ethanol-base hand disinfection? (A) Corona virus (B) Influenza virus (C) Measles virus (D) Respiratory syncytial virus (E) Dengue virus

37. Which of the following plant hormones does NOT regulate seed germination positively or negatively? (A) auxin (B) gibberellins (C) abscisic acid (D) brassinosteroids (E) strigolactones

38. Which unique feature is found in the phylum Cnidaria, such as jellyfish and sea anemones? (A) exoskeleton made of chitin (B) vascular tissue for nutrient transport (C) notochord during some stage of their life cycle (D) nematocysts for defense and capturing prey (E) segmented body plan

複選題
39. Regarding prokaryotic gene regulation, what is the function of the lac operon in E. coli? (A) It codes for enzymes involving in the synthesis of lactose. (B) It is activated only when lactose is present and glucose is absent, allowing the cell to metabolize lactose. (C) It prevents lactose metabolism when glucose is present. (D) It enhances the binding of RNA polymerase to DNA, regardless of lactose presence. (E) It is involved in the replication of the bacterial chromosome.

40. Kranz anatomy is a specialized structure in _____. (A) C4 plants (B) C3 plants (C) CAM plants (D) parasitic plants (E) epiphytic plants

41. Which of the following characteristics is common to all prokaryotes? (A) They possess a nucleus. (B) They have membrane-bound organelles. (C) Their DNA is not enclosed within a membrane. (D) They all have a cell wall made of peptidoglycan. (E) They reproduce exclusively by sexual reproduction.

42. What is a biodiversity hotspot? (A) a region with a moderate level of species diversity (B) an area where invasive species have caused the extinction of native species (C) a region that experiences a high rate of habitat loss (D) a location where biodiversity is low but species are well adapted to extreme environments (E) an area with a high concentration of endemic species that is experiencing high rates of habitat loss

43. Which of the following traits is most commonly associated with protists? (A) They are all multicellular organisms. (B) They are all photosynthetic. (C) They belong to a single, monophyletic kingdom. (D) They exhibit a wide range of nutritional strategies. (E) They all have a rigid cell wall.

44. Under transmission electron microscope (TEM), there is an organelle that often exhibits a granular or crystalline core, believed to be a dense collection of enzyme molecules. Which of the following enzymes is most likely to be found in that crystal? (A) rubisco (B) PEP carboxylase (C) aldolase (D) alcohol dehydrogenase (E) catalase

45. Which mechanism allowsfor the stable coexistence of multiple species within the same ecological community? (A) competitive exclusion (B) resource partitioning (C) unlimited resource availability (D) identical niche requirements for all species (E) absence of predators within the community

46. Which of the following statements about circadian rhythm is FALSE? (A) Circadian rhythm is an intrinsic biological clock that can be synchronized by external day/night cycles. (B) Cyclic alterations of human body temperature also reflect circadian rhythm. (C) If an organism is kept in a constant environment, such as continuous light, its circadian rhythm will remain precisely 24 hours. (D) Melatonin secretion also follows circadian rhythm, with its concentration peak occurring around 4:00 AM. (E) Both phytochromes and blue light photoreceptors can entrain circadian rhythm in plants.

47. Which of the following vertebrates is first characterized by the presence of an amniotic egg? (A) amphibians (B) fishes (C) reptiles (D) mammals (E) chordates

48. What is the primary role of the vestibular system in humans? (A) to detect and process visual information (B) to maintain balance and spatial orientation (C) to facilitate communication through speech and language (D) to process and interpret sounds (E) to detect and respond to changes in temperature

49. Which of the following reactions increases the proton gradient across the thylakoid membrane in the light for chemiosmosis?
① photolysis of water
② electron transport through plastoquinone
③ electron transport through plastocyanin
④ electron transport from ferredoxin to NADP+
⑤ fixation of CO2 through Rubisco(A) ①② (B) ①③ (C) ①②③(D) ①②③④ (E) ⑤

50. Please select the TRUE order of human fertilization.

A. cortical reaction B. acrosomal reaction C. formation of perivitelline space D. calcium release (A) A→B→C→D (B) B→D→A→C (C) B→C→A→D (D) D→B→C→A (E) D→C→B→A

51. Which of the following statements about genetically modification is FALSE? (A) Bt (Bacillus thuringiensis) maize is a genetically modified organism (GMO) with a transgene encoding Bt toxin, which can prevent maize from insect feeding. (B) Golden rice is a GMO created to address vitamin A deficiency. (C) Soil bacteria Agrobacterium is commonly used as a tool for transferring exogenous genes into plants for GMO generation. (D) Purple sweet potatoes are GMOs in which anthocyanin biosynthetic genes are overexpressed. (E) Papaya in Hawaii is genetically engineered for resistance to a ringspot virus.

52. Which of the following statements is TRUE for Gram-negative bacteria? (A) Gram-negative bacteria cell wall is lack of lipopolysaccharide. (B) Gram-negative bacteria generally contain a capsule outside the cell wall. (C) Gram-negative bacteria contain endotoxin, whereas Gram-positive bacteria do not. (D) Gram-negative bacteria show a darker color than Gram-positive bacteria. (E) Gram-negative bacteria have thicker peptidoglycan than Gram-positive bacteria.

53. Which of the following organs is specialized root in plants? (A) rhizome (B) stolon (C) tuber (D) pneumatophore (E) petiole

54. Which of the following cells abundantly express both the MHC I and MHC II molecules? (A) macrophage and dendritic cell (B) macrophage and neutrophil (C) B lymphocyte and macrophage (D) B lymphocyte and neutrophil (E) neutrophil and dendritic cell

【已刪除】

55. Which of the following characteristics are common in archaea and bacteria?
① composition of the cell wall
② absence of histones
③ lack of a nuclear envelope
④ presence of introns in genes
⑤ presence of RNA polymerase(A) ①③④ (B) ②③④⑤ (C) ②④⑤(D) ②③④ (E) 一律給分

56. Which of the following hormones triggers the adrenal gland to promote the synthesis of glucose from noncarbohydrates in response to stress? (A) aldosterone (B) epinephrine (C) cortisol (D) glucocorticoid (E) adrenocorticotropic hormone

57. Which of the following hormones are synthesized in the hypothalamus and released from the posterior pituitary? (A) prolactin, oxytocin (B) oxytocin, antidiuretic hormone (C) luteinizing hormone, prolactin (D) follicle-stimulating hormone, oxytocin (E) antidiuretic hormone, prolactin

複選題
58. Which part of the digestive tract secretes appetite suppressant to counter appetite stimulant? (A) stomach (B) pancreas (C) liver (D) small intestine (E) duodenum

59. Which kind of fungus commonly causes athlete's foot? (A) Ascomycetes (B) Basidiomycetes (C) Mucoromycetes (D) Oomycetes (E) Zoopagomycetes

60. Which of the following concepts is illustrated by a phylogenetic tree that depicts the evolutionary relationships among various species? (A) the morphological similarities among species (B) the biochemical pathways shared by different species (C) the reproductive mechanisms of different species (D) the geographical distribution of species (E) the evolutionary history and lineage of organisms

61. Which of the followings are used to determine the primary structure of proteins?

① size exclusion chromatography ② SDS polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis ③ Edman degradation ④ circular dichroism ⑤ analysis of amino acid composition (A) ①② (B) ②③ (C) ③④ (D) ④⑤ (E) ③⑤

62. Which structural motifs or domains are likely to interact with DNA?

① helix-turn-helix ② EF-hand ③ immunoglobulin fold ④ homeodomain ⑤ zinc finger (A) ①②③ (B) ①③④ (C) ②③⑤ (D) ①④⑤ (E) ③④⑤

63. Which of the following statements regarding oxygen-binding to hemoglobin is TRUE? (A) H+ increases the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen. (B) BPG competes with O₂ for binding to the heme groups of hemoglobin. (C) Fetal hemoglobin binds O2 with higher affinity due to no bound BPG. (D) CO binds with lower affinity to fetal hemoglobin than to adult hemoglobin. (E) CO binding lowers the affinity of hemoglobin to O₂.

64. Which statement for the allosteric regulation of an enzyme activity is FALSE? (A) The two principal models for allosteric enzyme behaviors are called the concerted and sequential models. (B) The bound allosteric effector could be homotropic or heterotropic. (C) There are two forms, taut T form and relaxed R form. (D) In a sequential model, binding substrate to one subunit induces the other subunit to adopt R form. (E) Negative cooperativity could be observed in concerted model.

65. Which statement about the pentose phosphate pathway (PPP) is FALSE? (A) It provides NADH for biosynthesis reaction. (B) It operates exclusively in the cytosol. (C) It metabolizes the dietary pentose sugar. (D) It provides ribose-5-phosphate for nucleotide biosynthesis. (E) It provides ribose-5-phosphate for histidine biosynthesis.

66. Photophosphorylation and oxidative phosphorylation appear to be generally similar processes, both consisting of ATP synthesis coupled to the transfer of electrons along an electron carrier chain. Which statement is FALSE for both processes? (A) Both contain cytochromes and flavins in their electron carrier chains. (B) Both processes are associated with membranous elements of the cell. (C) Both use oxygen as a terminal electron acceptor. (D) Each represents the major route of ATP synthesis in those cells in which it is found. (E) Protons are pumped from the inside to the outside of both mitochondria and chloroplast membranes.

67. Which statement is FALSE for the structural features of nucleotides? (A) There are two types of bases, purines and pyrimidines. (B) The most common form of DNA in nature is B-form. (C) DNA is more stable than RNA. (D) An A-T base pair has two H-bonds, and a G-C base pair has three H-bonds. (E) Cytosine, uracil, and thymine belong to purines； adenine and guanine belong to pyrimidines.

68. Which of the following enzymes are inhibited by ATP?

① glucose-6-phosphatase ② phosphofructokinase ③ pyruvate kinase ④ hexokinase ⑤ fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase (A) ①② (B) ②③ (C) ③④ (D) ④⑤ (E) ①⑤

69. To identify the groups of N-linked glycans in a mixed sample, _____ can be used to achieve it. (A) mass spectrometry (B) lectin arrays (C) glycan arrays (D) antibody arrays (E) glycoconjugate analysis

70. Three of the ten reactions in glycolysis are not reversible. They are the reactions catalyzed by _____.

① hexokinase ② phosphofructokinase ③ glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase ④ phosphoglycerate kinase ⑤ pyruvate kinase (A) ①②④ (B) ②③⑤ (C) ①③④ (D) ①②⑤ (E) ②④⑤

71. Put the following steps concerning fatty acid synthesis in the appropriate order.

① condensation ② release of a C16 fatty acid ③ dehydration ④ reduction of a carbonyl group ⑤ formation of a carbonyl group (A) ⑤①④③② (B) ④⑤③①② (C) ①⑤③④② (D) ⑤④③①② (E) ⑤③④①②

72. Which is the citric acid cycle enzyme that can transfer electrons from its bound FADH2 through a series of iron-sulfur centers to coenzyme Q? (A) isocitrate dehydrogenase (B) malate dehydrogenase (C) succinate dehydrogenase (D) α-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex (E) succinyl-CoA synthetase

73. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
① Thromboxanes and leukotrienes are eicosanoids.
② Prostaglandins are not eicosanoids.
③ Aspirin inhibits the biosynthesis of leukotrienes.
④ Prostaglandin endoperoxide H synthase shows cyclooxygenase activity.
⑤ Leukotrienes are derived from Thromboxanes via lipoxygenase-mediated reactions.(A) ①② (B) ①③ (C) ①④ (D) ②③⑤ (E) ③④⑤

74. Which of the following statements concerning fatty acid metabolisms is FALSE? (A) De novo fatty acid biosynthesis occurs in the cytosol. (B) The synthesis of oleic acid from palmitic acid is in the cytosol. (C) Ketone body formation occurs predominantly in mitochondria. (D) Acetyl-CoA for de novo fatty acid biosynthesis is formed by citrate cleavage. (E) For storing triglyceride, the predominant fatty acyl group is oleic acid.

75. Which of the following conditions favors the increase of ketone body synthesis? (A) increasing of glycolysis in skeletal muscle (B) increasing glycogenolysis in liver (C) increasing gluconeogenesis in liver (D) increasing fatty acid synthesis in brain (E) increasing of lipolysis in adipose tissue

76. Which of the followings are TRUE regarding the complete oxidation of one mole of palmitate
(16:0) via the β-oxidation pathway?
① 8 moles of NADH are formed.
② The initial substrate for β-oxidation is palmitoyl-CoA.
③ NADH transfers electrons to the respiratory chain through Complex I.
④ Acetyl-CoA enters the citric acid cycle for further energy production.
⑤ Oxidation of acetyl-CoA produced from one mole of palmitate yields 106 moles of ATP.(A) ①②③ (B) ①③④ (C) ①④⑤ (D) ②③④ (E) ③④⑤

77. Which statement for gluconeogenesis from pyruvate to glucose is FALSE? (A) Oxaloacetate is one of the intermediates. (B) TPP is a cofactor to catalyze carboxylation of pyruvate. (C) The carboxylation of pyruvate requires energy provided by ATP. (D) GTP is required to convert the intermediate to phosphoenolpyruvate. (E) The intermediate formed in mitochondria can either be converted to phosphoenolpyruvate or malate to leave mitochondria.

78. Transport of fatty acids from the cytoplasm to the mitochondrial matrix requires _____. (A) ATP, carnitine, and acetyl-CoA carboxylase (B) carnitine, coenzyme A, and acetyl-CoA (C) ATP, carnitine, and coenzyme A (D) carnitine, coenzyme A, and manolyl-CoA (E) ATP, carnitine, and acetyl-CoA

79. The human genetic disease phenylketonuria can result from _____.
① a defect in phenylalanine hydroxylase
② a defect in homogentisate dioxygenase
③ inability to convert phenylalanine to tyrosine
④ urine containing excessive phenylpyruvate
⑤ deficiency of phenylalanine in the diet(A) ①②③ (B) ①③④ (C) ①②⑤ (D) ②③④ (E) ①③⑤

80. Which statement for DNA supercoiling is FALSE? (A) In prokaryotes, class I topoisomerases cut the phosphodiester backbone of one strand of DNA, pass the other end through, and then reseal the backbone. (B) Class II topoisomerases cut both strands of DNA, pass some of the remaining DNA helix between the cut ends, and then reseal. (C) DNA helicase is a bacterial topoisomerase that introduces negative supercoils into DNA. (D) In eukaryotes, DNA forms a complex called chromatin that mainly contains histones. (E) A relaxed DNA can be converted either to positive supercoil or negative supercoil.

81. Which of the followings can be used to detect DNA-protein interactions?

① Southern blotting ② Footprinting ③ Agarose electrophoresis ④ Electrophoresis mobility shift assay ⑤ Co-immunoprecipitation (A) ①② (B) ②③ (C) ③④ (D) ②④ (E) ②⑤

82. Uracil-DNA N-glycosylase is involved in which of the following DNA repair mechanisms? (A) base-excision repair (B) nucleotide excision repair (C) direct repair (D) mismatch repair (E) double-strand break repair

83. Chromatin immunoprecipitation can be used to isolate DNA fragments containing a DNAbinding protein of interest. If you wish to know the feature of the DNA fragment in the mixture, what is the next experiment you can detect? (suppose the DNA fragment being unknown) (A) polymerase chain reaction (B) DNA sequencing (C) Edman degradation (D) tandem mass spectrometry (E) Southern blot

84. Which of the following statements concerning Shine-Dalgarno sequence is TRUE? (A) It plays as restriction enzyme site on the plasmid. (B) It is a polyadenylation signal. (C) It is a sequence in upstream of the start codon in prokaryotic systems. (D) It regulates DNA replication in eukaryotic systems. (E) It interacts with ion transporter.

85. Which metabolic effect is associated with AMP-activated protein kinase (AMPK)? (A) When activated, AMPK stimulates insulin release from the pancreas. (B) When activated, AMPK activates fructose 2,6-bisphosphatase. (C) When activated, AMPK phosphorylates glycogen synthase, inhibiting glycogen synthesis during periods of metabolic stress. (D) When activated, AMPK activates fatty acid synthase 1, stimulating fatty acid synthesis. (E) None of the answers is correct.

86. Which statement about the transcription in eukaryotes is TRUE? (A) Protein synthesis can begin while DNA replication is still proceeding. (B) Transcription occurs in the nucleus. (C) Capping and splicing reactions proceed in the cytoplasm. (D) The mature mRNA contains both introns and exons. (E) A poly-A tail is attached to the RNA transcript after it is transported to the cytoplasm.

87. Which of the followings participate in translation?

① dNTP ② ribosome ③ primer ④ tRNA ⑤ mRNA ⑥ promoter ⑦ rRNA ⑧ enhancer ⑨ reverse transcriptase ⑩ rho factor (A) ①②④⑥ (B) ②④⑤⑦ (C) ③⑦⑧⑩ (D) ⑤⑥⑦⑨ (E) ③④⑦⑧

88. Which statement for prokaryotic protein synthesis is FALSE? (A) Protein synthesis begins at an AUG codon on the mRNA. (B) The initial complex contains two main ribosomal subunits, the mRNA, GTP, and three initiation factors. (C) The fMet-tRNAfMet binds to the P-site of the ribosome. (D) After a chain elongation, the ribosome moves one codon, leaving a peptidyl-tRNA in the P-site and a new aminoacyl-tRNA entering the A site. (E) When the ribosome encounters a stop codon, the chain is terminated in a process requiring GTP and three protein release factors.

89. Which of the following statements is FALSE? (A) Estrogen-estrogen receptor complex activates estrogen-responsive gene. (B) Estrogen receptor has the “Zinc finger” structural motif. (C) Tamoxifen binds to estrogen receptors but does not activate estrogen-responsive genes. (D) Estrogen binds to “Zinc finger” motif of estrogen receptors. (E) Estrogen binds to estrogen receptor in the cytoplasm, and the estrogen-estrogen receptor complex translocates into the nucleus.

90. Which of the following statements are TRUE about the effect of insulin?
① Increased uptake of glucose in adipose and muscle tissue
② Activation of glycolysis in the liver
③ Inhibition of synthesis of fatty acids and TG in liver and adipose tissue
④ Increased gluconeogenesis in the liver
⑤ Increased glycogen synthesis in the liver and muscle(A) ①③④ (B) ①④⑤ (C) ①②⑤ (D) ②③④ (E) ②④⑤

113年 - 113 學士後醫學系招生考試試題：普通生物及生化概論#119349

試卷資訊

選擇題 (90)

申論題 (0)