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93年 - 93 高雄醫學大學_學士後醫學系招生考試試題：普通生物學#84287

科目：學士後 - 普通生物學（生物學） | 年份：93年 | 選擇題數：65 | 申論題數：0

試卷資訊

所屬科目：學士後 - 普通生物學（生物學）

選擇題 (65)

1. What are the two classifications of prokaryotes? (A) Domain Bacteria and Domain Archaea. (B) Domain Eukarya and Domain Archaea. (C) Domain Archaea and Kingdom Monera. (D) Domain Bacteria and Kingdom Monera. (E) Domain Bacteria and Domain Eukarya.
2. A linkage map (A) reflects the frequency of crossing over between X and Y sex chromosomes. (B) can pinpoint actual loci of genes. (C) is a genetic map based on recombination frequencies. (D) requires preparation of karyotypes. (E) always has a total of 100 map units.
3. The snowball Earth hypothesis provides a possible explanation for the (A) oxygenation of Earth's seas and atmosphere. (B) existence of hydrothermal vents on the ocean floor. (C) diversification of animals start at the Precambrian era. (D) colonization of land by plants and fungi. (E) origin of O2-releasing photosynthesis.
4. As a group, acoelomates are characterized by (A) deuterostome development. (B) the absence of a brain. (C) a coelom that is not completely lined with mesoderm. (D) a solid body without a cavity surrounding internal organs. (E) the absence of mesoderm.
5. Diets rich in fat release enterogastrones that inhibit (A) gastric secretion. (B) stomach peristalsis. (C) esophageal peristalsis. (D) intestinal secretion. (E) pancreatic secretion.
6. If mammalian cells receive a go-ahead signal at the G1 checkpoint, they will (A) move directly into telophase. (B) exit the cycle and switch to a nondividing state. (C) complete the cycle and divide. (D) complete cytokinesis and form new cell walls. (E) show a drop in maturation-promoting factor (MPF) concentration.
7. Catastrophism was Cuvier's attempt to explain (A) natural selection. (B) uniformitarianism. (C) evolution. (D) the fossil record. (E) the origin of new species.
8. The shaping of an animal and its individual parts into a body form with specialized organs and tissues is called (A) induction. (B) pattern formation. (C) organogenesis. (D) determination. (E) differentiation.
9. The first group with flowers was the (A) angiosperms. (B) algae. (C) fern allies. (D) ferns. (E) gymnosperms.
10. Which of the following is descriptive of protosomes? (A) spiral and indeterminate cleavage, schizocoelous development. (B) radial cleavage and determinate cleavage, schizocoelous development. (C) spiral and determinate cleavage, schizocoelous development. (D) radial and indeterminate cleavage, enterocoelous development. (E) radial cleavage and determinate cleavage, enterocoelous development.
11. Which of the following statements is correct? (A) Speciation occurs when mutations generate observable differences. (B) A species is composed of organisms located in the same habitat. (C) Speciation occurs when natural selection pressures reach their maximum. (D) A species is composed of a group of reproductive females. (E) Speciation occurs after populations become reproductively isolated and diverge.
12. Which of the following is not true about micronutrients in plants? (A) They generally help in catalytic functions. (B) They are elements required in relatively small amounts. (C) Overdoses of them can be toxic. (D) They are essential elements of plants’ small size and molecular weight. (E) They are required for a plant to grow from a seed and complete its life cycle.
13. Which of the following statements about primary productivity is correct? (A) The highest primary productivity occurs in the open ocean. (B) The highest primary productivity per square meter occurs in the open ocean. (C) The highest primary productivity per square meter occurs in the savannah. (D) The highest primary productivity occurs in the tropical rain forest. (E) The highest primary productivity occurs in the temperate forest.
14. Which of the following statements is true? (A) The Hardy-Weinberg law applies to small, unstable populations. (B) Crossing over decreases variation. (C) Migration leads to genetic variation. (D) Dominant genes always occur more frequently in a population than recessive genes. (E) Nonrandom mating always affects no changes in gene frequency.
15. Which of the following terms did E. O. Wilson use to describe our innate appreciation of wild environments and living organisms? (A) biophobia. (B) bioethics. (C) biophilia. (D) biodiversity. (E) restoration ecology.
16. Almost all of the major animal phyla we see today appeared in the fossil record at the beginning of the (A) Cretaceous period. (B) Mesozoic period. (C) Carboniferous period. (D) Jurassic period. (E) Cambrian period.
17. Aphids reproduce asexually or sexually. They are likely to rely on asexual reproduction when (A) environmental conditions are good and unchanging. (B) environmental conditions are bad and changeable. (C) they are threatened by predators. (D) there is a shortage of females. (E) there are too many aphids for the host plant to support.
18. Membranes from cells grown in media enriched with stearate are less fluid than normal membranes. This is because (A) there are more transmembrane proteins. (B) the membranes probably have less sterols. (C) the membranes have a lower transition temperature. (D) the membranes have more saturated fatty acids. (E) the membranes have more unsaturated fatty acids.
19. MPF (maturation-promoting factor) turns itself off by (A) activating an enzyme that dissociates cyclin from cyclin-dependent kinase (Cdk). (B) activating an enzyme that phosphorylates cyclin. (C) activating an enzyme that phosphorylates Cdk. (D) activating an enzyme that destroys cyclin. (E) activating an enzyme that destroys Cdk.
20. The plasma cell is specialized for the production and secretion of antibodies, and thus contains more (A) DNA. (B) nuclear pore complexes. (C) mitochondria. (D) endoplasmic reticulum. (E) lysosomes.
21. A harmless fly has yellow and black stripes on its abdomen like a wasp’s. This is an example of (A) coevolution. (B) mimicry. (C) divergent evolution. (D) disruptive selection. (E) camouflage.
22. Living in a group confers what advantage on an animal? (A) access to mate (B) increased ability to forage (C) protection from diseases (D) A and B (E) B and C
23. How are the action potentials of pacemaker cells spread to other cardiac cells? (A) via cardiac innervation (B) via neuromuscular junctions (C) by the sudden and instantaneous depolarization of all cardiac cells (D) via gap junctions (E) A and B
24. The percentage of the human genome that encodes proteins is approximately (A) 90 %. (B) 70 %. (C) 35 %. (D) 20 %. (E) 3 %.
25. The nuclear envelope breaks down at the end of (A) S phase. (B) G2 phase. (C) prophase. (D) metaphase. (E) anaphase.
26. Which of the following domains combines dimerization and DNA-binding surfaces in a long helix? (A) homeodomain (B) zinc finger (C) leucine zipper (D) helix-turn-helix (E) acidic domain
27. Why do the kidney’s activities require large amounts of energy? (A) Filtration requires high blood pressure. (B) Tubular reabsorption involves active transport. (C) Water is removed from the urine by active transport. (D) Osmosis occurs in energized proteins in the walls of capillaries. (E) All of the above.
28. Hypophosphatemia is inherited as an X-linked dominant. A woman without hypophosphatemia and a man with hypophosphatemia have a daughter. The daughter mates with a male without hypophosphatemia. What is the expected phenotypic ratio of their offspring? (A) 3 unaffected females : 1 male with hypophosphatemia (B) 2 unaffected females : 1 unaffected male : 1 male with hypophosphatemia (C) 1 unaffected female : 1 female with hypophosphatemia : 1 unaffected male : 1 male with hypophosphatemia (D) 1 unaffected female : 1 male with hypophosphatemia (E) 1 female with hypophosphatemia : 1 unaffected male
29. Birds are like their reptile ancestors, but their bodies are highly modified for flight. Which of the following characteristics is not an adaptation for flight? (A) feathers (B) amniotic eggs (C) a short tail (D) bones with air sacs (E) endothermic metabolism
30. All of the following are reasons why gas exchange is more difficult for aquatic animals than it is for terrestrial animals except (A) water is harder to pump than air. (B) water is denser than air. (C) water contains much less O2 than air per unit volume. (D) gills have less surface area than lungs. (E) exchanging gases with water causes substantial heat loss.
31. Which of the following is an example of polygenic inheritance? (A) skin pigmentation in humans (B) pink flowers in snapdragons (C) sex linkage in humans (D) white and purple color in sweet peas (E) the ABO blood groups in humans
32. Where is the attachment site for RNA polymerase? (A) operator region (B) initiation region (C) structural gene region (D) promoter region (E) regulator region
33. Gene flow is a concept best used to describe an exchange between (A) individuals. (B) chromosomes. (C) species. (D) males and females. (E) populations.
34. Differentiation of teeth is greatest in (A) reptiles. (B) mammals. (C) bony fishes. (D) sharks. (E) amphibians.
35. The primary role of oxygen in respiration is to (A) combine with carbon, forming CO2. (B) catalyze the glycolysis reaction. (C) act as an acceptor for electrons and hydrogen, forming water. (D) yield energy in the form of ATP as it is passed down the respiratory chain. (E) combine with lactic acid to form pyruvic acid.
複選題
36. A long-day plant will flower if (A) it is kept in continuous far-red light. (B) the duration of continuous darkness exceeds a critical length. (C) the duration of continuous light is less than a critical length. (D) the duration of continuous darkness is less than a critical length. (E) the duration of continuous light exceeds a critical length.
37. The first plants arose during the __________ era. (A) Cenozoic (B) Mesozoic (C) Paleozoic (D) Precambrian (E) Tertiary
38. Which of the following substances is incorrectly matched with its producer? (A) aldosterone--kidney (B) ADH--hypothalamus (C) atrial natriuretic factor-- heart (D) angiotensinogen--liver (E) renin--juxtaglomerular apparatus
39. Which of the following may explain genomic imprinting? (A) post-translational modification of proteins (B) oncogenes (C) DNA methylation (D) microsatellite DNA (E) retrotransposons
40. The repeated use of insecticides may lead to the evolution of insecticide resistance in insects. What mechanism is involved? (A) directional selection (B) disruptive selection (C) stabilizing selection (D) genetic drift (E) population bottleneck
41. Biomes are (A) recognized on the basis of the dominant animal life. (B) all of the populations of a particular species. (C) a major type of ecosystem. (D) unaffected by climatic factors. (E) limited to aquatic regions.
42. Archaeopteryx (A) was a transitional form between birds and mammals. (B) had feathers and had no teeth. (C) was a transitional form between fish and amphibians. (D) had feathers and had a long bony tail. (E) was a transitional from between reptiles and mammals.
43. Genetic variation is the result of all but (A) the role of environment in controlling genetic expression. (B) alteration in chromosome structure of number. (C) gene mutation. (D) independent assortment. (E) genetic recombination.
44. Consider a field plot containing 200 kg of plant material. How many kg of carnivore production can be supported? (A) 200 (B) 100 (C) 50 (D) 20 (E) 2
45. The most common pattern of dispersion in nature is (A) random. (B) uniform. (C) indeterminate. (D) dispersive. (E) clumped.
46. Which of the following statements about movement corridors is true? (A) A movement corridor connects otherwise isolated patches of quality habitat for a species. (B) Corridors can be constructed only by humans. (C) Riparian habitats frequently serve as effective corridors. (D) A and C are true. (E) A, B, and C are true.
47. Which of the following combination is correct? (A) Porifera – coelomate, branch radial. (B) Nematoda – earthworm, pseudocoelomate. (C) Platyhelminthes – flatworms, pesudocoelomate. (D) Echinodermata – branch bilateria, diploblastic. (E) Cnidaria – radial symmetry, diploblastic.
48. A person suffering from AIDS would be unlikely to suffer from which of the following diseases? (A) Rheumatoid arthritis (B) Hepatitis (C) Tuberculosis (D) Influenza (E) Cancer
49. The vascular system of a three-year-old dicot stem consists of (A) 3 rings of xylem and 3 of phloem. (B) 2 rings of xylem and 2 of phloem. (C) 3 rings of xylem and 1 of phloem. (D) 1 rings of xylem and 3 of phloem. (E) 2 rings of xylem and 3 of phloem.
50. Within the female gametophyte, three mitotic divisions of the megaspore produce (A) the triple fushion nucleus and two synergids. (B) three pollen grains and three antipodal cells. (C) two antipodals and two eggs. (D) three antipodal cells,two polar nuclei, one egg, and two synergids. (E) a tube nucleus, a generative cell, an egg, and a sperm.
51. A pathogenic fungus invades a plant. Which of the following does the plant produce in response to the attack? (A) antibiotics (B) antisense RNA (C) phytochrome (D) phytoalexins (E) statoliths
52. Which of the following is correctly paired? (A) forebrain – diencephalons (B) midbrain – cerebellum (C) spinal cord – brainstem (D) both A and B are correct (E) both B and C are correct
53. Which of the following statements is false? (A) Estuaries support many semiaquatic species. (B) Many lakes in temperate regions are characterized by seasonal thermal stratification. (C) The distribution of photosynthetic organisms is limited by the quality and intensity of light in marine ecosystems. (D) Estuaries usually contain no or few producers. (E) Many aquatic biomes exhibit pronounced vertical stratification of chemical variables.
54. The following organism with the greatest number of Hox genes should be a(n) (A) fish. (B) fly. (C) flatworm. (D) fluke. (E) fruit fly.
55. Which of the following does not have a coefficient of relatedness of 0.5 in humans? (A) a brother to his brother (B) a mother to her son (C) an uncle to his nephew (D) a father to his daughter (E) a sister to her brother
56. Which of the following is true in the logistic model of population growth? (A) as N approaches K, the growth rate will approach zero (B) as N approaches K, the death rate decreases (C) as N approaches K, the carrying capacity of the environment will increase (D) as N approaches K, the growth rate increases (E) both C and D are correct
57. The population cycle of the snowshoe hare and its predator indicates that (A) predators are not the only factor controlling the size of prey populations. (B) the two species must have evolved in close contact because one cannot live without the other. (C) both populations are controlled mainly by abiotic factors. (D) the hare populations is r-selected, whereas the lynx population is K-selected. (E) both C and D are correct.
58. A gastrovascular cavity, with a single opening, is the characteristic digestive system of animals in which phylum? (A) Nematoda (B) Platyhelminthes (C) Arthropoda (D) Mollusca (E) Porifera
59. Which of the following statements about endocrine system is false? (A) Hormones from the adrenal cortex control salt and water balance. (B) An increase in endorphins blocks pain. (C) An iodine deficiency might interfere with the production of thyroxine. (D) Some cells can conduct nerve signals and secrete hormones. (E) Most endocrine glands produce steroid hormones.
60. If two modern organisms are distantly related in an evolutionary sense, then one should expect that (A) they should live in very different habitats. (B) their chromosomes should be very similar. (C) they shares a common ancestor relatively recently. (D) they should share fewer homologous organs than two closely related organisms. (E) they should be members of the same genus.
61. How do cleavage divisions differ from normal mitotic cell divisions? (A) Cleavage divisions occur by meiosis, not mitosis. (B) Cleavage divisions are slower than normal cell divisions. (C) Cleavage divisions occur without much mRNA synthesis. (D) Cleavage divisions divide cells into daughters with different gene sets. (E) Both C and D are correct.
62. The endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi apparatus are very similar among the groups of alga-like protists, but chloroplasts differ significantly and appear to be related to different prokaryotes. These facts imply that (A) The Golgi apparatus evolved before the endomembrane system. (B) Chloroplasts evolved before the endoplasmic reticulum. (C) Endomembrane systems evolved before chloroplasts. (D) Endomembrane systems evolved from symbiotic prokaryotes. (E) Both C and D are correct.
63. In the presence of an antibiotic prokaryotic translation can initiate, but only dipeptides that remain bound to the ribosome are formed. This antibiotic appears to block (A) binding of fMet-tRNAi to P site. (B) binding of aminoacyl-tRNA to A site. (C) peptide bond formation. (D) translocation. (E) termination.
64. According to the wobble rules, a tRNA with the anticodon 5'-GAU-3' can recognize the codons (A) 5'-CUA-3' and 5'-UUA-3'. (B) 5'-CUA-3' and 5'-CUG-3'. (C) 5'-AUC-3' and 5'-GUC-3'. (D) 5'-AUC-3' and 5'-AUU-3'. (E) 5'-IUC-3'.
65. Cephalization is generally associated with all of the following except (A) bilateral symmetry. (B) a brain. (C) a longitudinal nerve cord. (D) a sessile existence. (E) concentration of sensory structures at the anterior end.

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