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96年 - 96學士後西醫生物#39066

科目：學士後西醫-生物學 | 年份：96年 | 選擇題數：75 | 申論題數：0

試卷資訊

所屬科目：學士後西醫-生物學

選擇題 (75)

1. Chemolithoautotroph means (A) energy source: light; carbon source: CO2. (B) energy source: inorganic chemicals; carbon source: CO2. (C) energy source: light; carbon source; organic compounds. (D) energy source: organic compounds; carbon source: organic compounds. (E) energy source: inorganic chemicals; carbon source: inorganic chemicals.
2. Which of the following is NOT a force that changes gene frequencies for populations? (A) mutation. (B) random genetic drift. (C) migration. (D) genome size. (E) natural selection.
3. "Which of following characteristics can distinguish protostome from deuterostome development? (A) spiral cleavage. (B) coelom formation. (C) fate of the blastopore. (D) A and B. (E) A, Band C.
4. In plants, the male gametangium, a moist chamber in which gametes develop, is called (A) antheridium. (B) archegonium. (C) sporangium. (D) angiosperrns. (E) gametophore.
5. What do budding and fragmentation have in common? (A) Both are types of asexual reproduction. (B) Both produce large numbers of offspring. (C) Both occur in sea stars. (D) Both involve mitosis. (E) Both A and D.
6. Which of the following is INCORRECTLY paired? (A) hair cell-mechanoreceptor. (B) muscle spindle-mechanoreceptor. (C) gustatory receptor-chemoreceptor. (D) cone cell-photoreceptor. (E) pacinian corpuscles-chemoreceptor.
7. Which of the following statements concerning the components of ATP synthase on inner membrane of themitochondrion is FALSE? (A) A rotor within the membrane spins clockwise when H+ flows past it down the H+ gradient. (B) A stator anchored in the membrane holds the knob stationary. (C) A rod extending into the knob also spins, activating catalytic sites in the knob. (D) A rod as a channel is used to drive the transport of ATP molecules against a concentration gradient. (E) The catalytic sites in the stationary knob join inorganic phosphate to ADP to make ATP.
8. What is the reason for fluid being forced out of systemic capillaries at the arteriole end? (A) The osmotic pressure of the interstitial fluid is greater than that of the blood. (B) The hydrostatic pressure of the blood is less than that of the interstitial fluid. (C) The hydrostatic pressure of the blood is greater than the osmotic pressure of the blood. (D) The osmotic pressure of the interstitial fluid is greater than the hydrostatic pressure of the blood. (E) The osmotic pressure of the blood is greater than the hydrostatic pressure of the interstitial fluid.
9. Which of the following is a correct sequence of processes that takes place when a flowering plant reproduces? (A) meiosis-fertilization-ovulation -germination. (B) fertilization-meiosis-nuclear fusion-formation of embryo and endosperm. (C) meiosis-pollination-nuclear fusion-formation of embryo and endosperm. (D) growth of pollen tube-pollination-germination-fertilization. (E) meiosis-mitosis-nuclear fusion-pollen.
10. When an illuminated rod or cone stimulates a horizontal cell, the horizontal cell inhibits more distant photoreceptors and bipolar cells that are not illuminated, making the light spot appear lighter and the dark surrounding even darker. This form of integration, called (A) horizontal inhibition. (B) horizontal amplification. (C) lateral inhibition. (D) lateral amplification. (E) cone stimulation.
11. Lipolysis and gluconeogenesis are stimulated when (A) insulin and glucagon are both decreasing. (B) insulin and glucagon are both increasing. (C) insulin is increasing and glucagon is decreasing. (D) insulin is decreasing and glucagon is increasing. (E) glucagon is not associated with lipolysis.
12. Consider this pathway: bitter molecules → G-protein→ phospholipase C → IP3 →raised [Ca2 +]→ cellular response. Identify the second messenger. (A) G-protein (B) IP3 (C) Ca2 + (D) Band C(E) A, B and C
13. The thick band of nerve fibers that connect the right and left cerebral hemispheres in placental mammals, enabling the hemispheres to process information together, is called (A) corpus callosum. (B) hippocampus. (C) suprachiasmatic nuclei. (D) limbic system. (E) reticular formation.
14. The capillary system that serves the loop of Henle, is called (A) vas deferens. (B) macula densa. (C) vasa recta. (D) juxtaglomerular apparatus. (E) henle plexus.
15. Which of the following occurs when a skeletal muscle fiber contracts? (A) The myosin head is bound to ATP. (B) The myosin tail binds to actin, forming a cross-bridge. (C) Releasing ADP and Pi, myosin fixes the thin filament. (D) The tropomyosin is activated by ATP hydrolysis. (E) Ca+2 entry into sarcoplasmic reticulum.
16. The mechanism that is used by Drosophila melanogaster to prevent the shortening of the chromosome ends is (A) transposition. (B) elongating the ends by telomerase. (C) apoptosis. (D) signal transduction. (E) recombination and mismatch repair.
17. Which of the following statements on eukaryotic mRNA is NOT true? (A) mRNA is usually capped at the 5' terminus. (B) mRNA always contains a poly-A tail. (C) Translation usually starts from the first AUG codon from the 5' terminus. (D) mRNA often contains an AAUAAA sequence in the 3' region as a polyadenylation signal. (E) mRNA does not contain a Shine-Dalgarno sequence for translation initiation.
18. Which of the following processes is most directly driven by light energy? (A) Creation of a pH gradient by pumping protons across the thylakoid membrane. (B) Carbon fixation in the stroma. (C) Reduction of NADP+ molecules. (D) Removal of electrons from chlorophyll molecules. (E) ATP synthesis.
19. 'Which of the following does NOT occur during the Calvin cycle? (A) carbon fixation. (B) oxidation ofNADPH. (C) release of oxygen (D) regeneration of the C02 acceptor. (E) consumption of ATP.
20. 'Which of the following statements is most compatible with the "source-sink" concept of sugar transport in the phloem? (A) Sugars are loaded at the sink. (B) Sugars move from the sink to the source in the phloem. (C) Sugars are unloaded at the source. (D) Developing young leaves are sinks and fully developed leaves are sources. (E) Transport is always unidirectional in the phloem.
21. The completion of the S phase of the cell cycle of a mammalian cell is marked by all of the following EXCEPT: (A) Histone content per cell is double that of cells in G1• (B) In replicated DNA, newly incorporated bases are paired with parental bases. (C) Each replicated chromosome has four telomeres. (D) Sister chromatids disjoin from one another. (E) The nucleus contains the equivalent amount of DNA of a tetraploid cell in G1•
22. Collenchyma cells can be recognized by (A) lignin in the cell walls.(B) the presence of chloroplasts. (C) their unevenly thickened cell walls.(D) the lack of nuclei at maturity. (E) large central vacuoles.  
23. Which of the following is a land plant that produces flagellated sperm and has a sporophyte-dominant life cycle? (A) fern. (B) moss. (C) liverwort. (D) charophycean. (E) hornwort.
24. The immediate, direct effect of auxin in cell elongation, according to the acid growth hypothesis, is to (A) increase the hydrostatic pressure in cells, stretching their walls. (B) activate ATP-driven proton (H+) pumps, and result in an accumulation of H+ in cytoplasm. (C) shift the pH and thus activate enzymes that break the hydrogen bonds. (D) move water into vacuoles. (E) activate the synthesis of new cytoplasm.
25. A precursor in the synthesis of the peptidoglycan of bacterial cell walls is UDP-: (A) galactose. (B) glucose.(C) glucuronic acid. (D) N-acetylglucosamine. (E) penicillin. 
26. ___ ecologists would study the distribution of Taiwania cryptomerioidesin mountain areas of Taiwan. (A) Population (B) Community (C) Ecosystem (D) Behavioral (E) Landscape
27. Which of the following best describes directional selection? (A) Two or more phenotypes are common and drive diversity. (B) It occurs when one extreme phenotype has an advantage over all other phenotypes. (C) Larger individuals in a population have higher rates of survival than average and small individuals. (D) All of the above. (E) B and C are correct.
28. In a ___ distribution, many sample plots will contain few or no individuals while other plots will contain a large number. (A) clumped (B) regular (C) random (D) uniform (E) none of the above
29. Groups of plant or animal subpopulations which are spatially isolated but exchange individuals is called a (A) metapopulation. (B) community. (C) clumped distribution. (D) corridor. (E) none of the above.
30. Which of the following situations dose NOT increase species diversity in a community? (A) predation by keystone species. (B) habitat heterogeneity. (C) competitive exclusion. (D) moderate disturbances. (E) immigration of species.
31. Which ofthe following is an example ofMiillerian mimicry? (A) Two species of unpalatable butterfly that have the same color pattern. (B) A day-flying hawkmoth that looks like a wasp. (C) A katydid whose wings look like a dead leaf. (D) Two species of rattlesnake that both rattle their tails. (E) Two species of moths with wing spots that look like owl's eyes.
32. Which of the following is NOT a shared characteristic of all chordates? (A) dorsal, hollow nerve cord. (B) notochord. (C) post-anal tail.(D) pharyngeal slits. (E) four-chambered heart.
3 3. Natural selection is based on all of the following except (A) inheritance of acquired characteristics. (B) the fittest individuals leave the most offspring. (C) variation exists within populations. (D) populations tend to produce more individuals than the environment can support. (E) differential reproductive success within populations.
34. In which specific way does the founder effect lead to changes in gene frequency? (A) Small populations get large and then small again. (B) By chance alone, the descendants are not genetically representative of the ancestral population. (C) Involves homozygous ancestral populations that become heterozygous. (D) Natural selection acts as a principal cause of change in the process. (E) Depends on the importance of nonneutral mutations.
35. Reproduction isolation resulting from behavioral changes that inhibit mating between neighbors can lead to (A) hybrid vigor. (B) allopatric speciation. (C) sympatric speciation. (D) stabilizing selection. (E) directional selection.
36. Two islands that are similar in size and have the same distance from the mainland have very different species richness. According to the theory of island biogeography, the difference in species richness is probably due to (A) area effect. (B) distance effect. (C) habitat effect. (D) target effect. (E) rescue effect.
37. Wbich of the following is NOT true about estruaries? (A) Estuaries have lower net primary production than continentia} shelf. (B) Estuaries are susceptible to pollution and commercial developments by humans. (C) Estuaries support a variety of animal life that humans consume. (D) Estuaries are often bordered by mudflats and salt marshes. (E) Estuaries contain waters of varying salinity.
38. The perceived pitch of a sound depends on (A) vibrations of the tympanic membrane being transmitted through the incus. (B) vibrations of the oval window creating wave formation in the fluid of the vestibular canal. (C) the region of the basilar membrane where the signal originated. (D) A and C only. (E) A, B, and C.
39. Neurons at rest are not at the equilibrium potential for K+ because the cell membrane is (A) only permeable to K+. (B) slightly permeable to Na+. (C) not permeable to Na+. (D) not permeable to K+. (E) only permeable to Na+.
40. 'Which of the following mechanisms for osmoregulation or nitrogen removal is INCORRECTLY paired with its corresponding animal? (A) metanephridium-earthworm. (B) Malpighian tubule-insect. (C) kidney-frog. (D) flame bulb-snake. (E) direct cellular exchange-marine invertebrate.
41. 'Which of the following respiratory systems is not closely associated with a blood supply? (A) vertebrate lungs. (B) fish gills. (C) tracheal systems of insects. (D) the outer skin of an earthworm. (E) the parapodia of a polychaete worm.
42. Where do air-breathing insects carry out gas exchange? (A) in specialized external gills. (B) in specialized internal gills. (C) in the alveoli of their lungs. (D) across the membranes of cells. (E) across the thin cuticular exoskeleton.
43. A mutation results in a cell that no longer produces a normal protein kinase for the M phase checkpoint. Which of the following would likely be the immediate result of this mutation? (A) The cell would prematurely enter anaphase. (B) The cell would never leave metaphase. (C) The cell would never enter metaphase. (D) The cell would never enter prophase. (E) The cell would undergo normal mitosis, but fail to enter the next G1 phase.
44. 'When nutrients are supplied to a cell, the last fluid through which they must pass before encountering the plasma membrane is the (A) plasma. (B) interstitial fluid. (C) blood. (D) intracellular fluid. (E) cerebrospinal fluid.
45. During meiosis ll, (A) cytokinesis results in the formation of a total of two cells. (B) sister chrorriatids of each chromosome are separated from each other. (C) homologous chromosomes pair up. (D) homologous chromosomes separate. (E) sister chromatids exchange parts.
46. Which of these is NOT found in the epidermis? (A) stratified epithelium.(B) blood vessels.(C) tight cell junctions. (D) keratin.  (E) melanin.
47. The first vertebrates are most closely related phylogenetically to which of the following phyla? (A) Echinodermata. (B) Annelida. (C) Mollusca. (D) Arthropoda. (E) None of these.
48. The classic Hershey and Chase (1952) experiment which offered evidence in support of DNA being the genetic material in bacteriophage made use of which of the following labeled components? (A) phosphorus and sulfur. (B) phosphorus and nitrogen. (C) phosphorus and oxygen. (D) nitrogen and oxygen. (E) nitrogen and sulfur.
49. Which of the following terms best characterizes catabolite repression associated with the lactose operon in E. coli? (A) inducible system. (B) repressible system. (C) negative control. (D) positive control. (E) constitutive.
50. Developmental similarities observed in most vertebrates are probably due to (A) chance. (B) the similar environments in which they live. (C) homeoboxes. (D) their phylogenetic histories. (E) homeoboxes and their phylogenetic histories.
51. Which of the following statements concerning biogeochemical cycles is NOT correct? (A) Plants and algae can use two inorganic forms of nitrogen: ammonium and nitrate. (B) Photosynthesis by plants and phytoplankton removes substantial amounts of atmospheric CO2 each year. (C) The largest accumulations of phosphorus are in sedimentary rocks of marine origin. There are also large quantities of phosphorus in soils, in the oceans and in organisms. (D) Under anaerobic conditions, nitrifying bacteria use NO3- in their metabolism instead of O2, releasing N2 in a process known as nitrification. (E) The major pathway for nitrogen to enter an ecosystem is via nitrogen fixation, the conversion of N2 by bacteria to forms that can be used to synthesize nitrogenous organic compounds.
52. The breathing in human is controlled by all of the following mechanisms EXCEPT (A) The sensors in the walls of the aorta and carotid arteries in the neck detect changes in blood pH and send nerve impulses to the medulla. (B) The sensors in the aorta and carotid arteries also detect changes in O2 levels in the blood and signal the medulla to increase the breathing rate. (C) Nerves from a breathing control center in the medulla oblongata of the brain send impulses to the diaphragm and rib muscles, stimulating them to contract and causing inhalation. (D) Sensors in the medulla detect changes in the pH of the blood and interistial fluid bathing the surface of the brain. (E) The control center in the medulla sets the basic rhythm, and a control center in the pons moderates it, smoothing out the transitions between inhalations and exhalations.
53. Which of the following statements concerning appetite-regulating hormones is NOT correct? (A) Leptin suppresses appetite as its level increase. (B) The hormone PYY, secreted by the small intestine after meals, acts as an appetite suppressant. (C) Insulin can suppress appetite by acting on the brain. (D) Ghrelin is one of the signals that triggers feelings of hunger as mealtimes approach. (E) Amino acids or fatty acid in the duodenum trigger the release of Cholecystokinin (CCK), an appetite suppressant.
54. Which of the following statements about both C4 and crassulacean acid metabolism (CAM) plant is INCORRECT? (A) Both adaptations are characterized by preliminary incorporation of CO2 into organic acids, followed by transferring of CO2 to the Calvin cycle. (B) In C4 and CAM plants, carbon fixation and the Calvin cycle occur in the same cells at different time. (C) The C4 and CAM pathways are two evolutionary solutions to the problem of maintaining photosynthesis with stomata partially or completely closed on hot, dry days. (D) The C4 plants are so named because they preface the Calvin cycle with an alternate mode of carbon fixation that forms a four-carbon compound as its first product. (E) The mesophyll cells of CAM plants store the organic acids they make during the night in their vacuoles until morning, when the stomata close.
55. Which of following statements concerning the mechanism of long-term potentiation (LTP) in the vertebrate brain is INCORRECT? (A) LTP involves an increase in the strength of synaptic transmission that occurs when presynaptic neurons produce a brief, high-frequency series of action potentials. (B) The presynaptic neuron release acetylcholine (ACh). ACh binds to its receptor, opening the receptor channel  and depolarizing the postsynaptic membrane. (C) Ca2 + diffuses into the postsynaptic neuron. Ca2 + initiates the phosphorylation of the receptor, making them more responsive. (D) stimulates the postsynaptic neuron to produce NO. (E) NO diffuses into the presynaptic neuron, causing it to release more neurotransmitters.
56. In what order would you pass through tissues when moving from the pith to the epidermis in a plant possessing secondary vascular tissue?
 (A) primary phloem  →  primary xylem  →  secondary phloem  →  secondary xylem.
 (B) primary xylem → secondary xylem  → . vascular cambium  →  secondary phloem  →  primary phloem.
(C) primary phloem  →  secondary phloem  →  secondary xylem →  primary xylem. 
(D) secondaryxylem  →  primary xylem  →  primary phloem  →  secondary phloem. 
(E) secondary phloem  →  primary phloem →  primary xylem  → secondary xylem.
57. Following clear-cutting of a deciduous forest several hundred years ago, the land was colonized by herbaceous species which, over time, were replaced largely by shrubs, then by forest trees. Assuming the growth of the shrubs and trees was enhanced by the soil-holding properties of the herbaceous plants, which of the following processes best describes the progression from herbaceous plants to forest trees? (A) secondary succession; inhibition. (B) primary succession; toleration. (C) secondary succession; facilitation. (D) primary succession; inhibition. (E) primary succession; facilitation.
58. Which of the following statements about fire is INCORRECT? (A) Fire is one kind of disturbance. (B) Communities such as grasslands and· chaparrals depend on periodic fire to .maintain. (C) Fire suppression by humans may increase the severity of the fires. (D) Fire suppression is necessary for the protection of threatened and endangered forest species. (E) Secondary succession follows a fire.
59. Which of the following is the CORRECT sequence that occurs during the excitation and contraction of a muscle cell? 
1. Tropomyosin shifts and unblocks the cross-bridge binding sites. 
2. Calcium is released and binds to the troponin complex. 
3. Transverse tubules depolarize the sarcoplasmic reticulum. 
4. The thin filaments are ratcheted across the thick filaments by the heads of the myosin molecules using energy from ATP. 
5. An action potential in a motor neuron causes the axon to release acetylcholine, which depolarizes the muscle cell membrane. 
(A) 5, 2, 3, 1, 4 (B) 2, 1, 3, 5, 4 (C) 2, 3, 4, 1, 5 (D) 5, 3, 1, 2, 4 (E) 5, 3, 2, 1, 4
60. Tetanus refers to (A) the partial sustained contraction of major supporting muscles. (B) the all-or-none contraction of a single muscle fiber. (C) a stronger contraction resulting from the activation of multiple motor units. (D) a smooth and sustained contraction, resulting from wave summation. (E) a state of muscle fatigue caused by the depletion of ATP and the accumulation of lactate.
61. Which of the following best describes how an axon grows toward its target cell? (A) The axon grows in a direct path, attracted by signal molecules released by target cells. (B) Cells along the growth path release signal molecules that either attract or repel the axon, and the interaction of CAMs on the growth cone and neighboring cells may provide tracks that guide axon growth. (C) Nerve growth factor released by astrocytes stimulates a neural progenitor cell to differentiate into a neuron, whose axon then grows toward an increasing concentration of signal molecules. (D) The axon produces growth-promoting proteins only in its growth cone, causing the axon to grow in an outward direction toward its target cells. (E) Glia first migrate to the target cells, leaving a trail of CAMs along the path that the growth cone of the axon follows.
62. If an egg cell contained EDTA~ a chemical that binds calcium and magnesium, what effects would this have on reproduction? (A) The acrosomal reaction would be blocked. (B) The fusion of sperm and egg nuclei would be blocked. (C) The fast block to polyspermy would not occur. (D) The fertilization envelope would not be formed. (E) The zygote would not contain maternal and paternal chromosomes.
63. Which of the following would probably have the greatest effect on convergent extension? (A) Stopping DNA synthesis. (B) Stopping mRNA synthesis. (C) Releasing an enzyme that digests glycoproteins. (D) A and B only. (E) A, B and C.
64. Which of the following is common to both avian and mammalian development? (A) holoblastic cleavage. (B) epiblast and hypoblast. (C) trophoblast. (D) yolk plug. (E) gray crescent.
65. How do the estrous and menstrual cycles compare? (A) Endometrial bleeding occurs during the menstrual cycle; the endometrium is reabsorbed by the uterus during the estrous cycle. (B) There are more pronounced behavioral changes during menstrual cycles than during estrous cycles. (C) There are stronger effects of season and climate on menstrual cycles. (D) Copulation can only occur during the period surrounding ovulation in both the estrous and menstrual cycles. (E) The length of both cycles averages 28 days.
66. A toxin that specifically blocks active transport in the loop of Henle might result in which of the following? (A) A decrease in the interstitial concentration ofNaCl. (B) A decrease in the filtrate concentration ability of the kidney. (C) An increase in the amount of interstitial urea to maintain interstitial osmolarity. (D) A and C only. (E) A, B and C.
67. 'Which of the following is an important distinction between the measurement of basal metabohc rate (BMR) and standard metabolic rate (SMR)? (A) An animal must be fasting for the measurement of SMR. (B) BMRs are performed only on ectothermic animals. (C) An organism must be actively exercising for the measurement ofBMR. (D) SMRs must be determined at a specific temperature. (E) The BMR for a particular animal is usually lower than that animal's SMR.
68. Taxol is an anticancer drug extracted from the Pacific yew tree. In animal cells, taxol disrupts microtubule formation by binding to microtubules and accelerating their assembly from the protein precursor, tubulin. Surprisingly, this stops mitosis. Specifically, taxol must affect (A) the fibers of the mitotic spindle. (B) anaphase. (C) formation of the centrioles. (D) chromatid assembly. (E) the S phase of the cell cycle.
69. During which phase of aerobic respiration is ATP produced directly by substrate-level phosphorylation? (A) acetyl CoA formation. (B) ethanol production. (C) glucose formation. (D) the Krebs cycle. (E) all of these are true.
70. Short hair (L) is dominant to long hair (l). If a short-haired animal of unknown origin is crossed with a long-haired animal and they produce one long-haired and one short-haired offspring, this would indicate that (A) the short-haired animal was pure-breeding. (B) the short-haired animal was not pure-breeding. (C) the long-haired animal was not pure-breeding. (D) the long-haired animal was pure-breeding. (E) none of these can be determined with two offspring.
71. Conjugation between a bacterium that lacks an F factor (F) and a bacterium that has an F factor on its chromosome (F+) would typically produce which of the following results?(A) The F bacterium ends up carrying one or more plasmids from the F+ bacterium; and the F+ bacterium that lacks those plasmids. (B) The F+ bacterium ends up with a recombinant chromosome that carries some genes from the F bacterium, and the F bacterium ends up with an unaltered chromosome. (C) The F+ bacterium ends up with a recombinant chromosome that carries some genes from the F bacterium, and the F-bacterium ends up with a chromosome that lacks those genes. (D) The F bacterium ends up with a recombinant chromosome that carries some genes from the F+ bacterium, and the F+ bacterium ends up with an unaltered chromosome. (E) The Fbacterium ends up with a recombinant chromosome that carries some genes from the F+ bacterium, and the F+ bacterium ends up with a chromosome that lacks those genes.
72. The hypothalamus and pituitary link the activities of the endocrine system and nervous system by (A) neurohormones being secreted in response to the summation of neural messages that enter the hypothalamus. (B) shifts in hormonal concentrations being detected by the anterior pituitary. (C) pheromones being secreted as a response to photoperiodic stimuli. (D) the nervous tissue of the anterior lobe of the pituitary sending stimuli to the glandular tissue of the posterior pituitary to produce hormones that will be secreted by the hypothalamus. (E) all of these are true.
73. ZP3 is a mammalian glycoprotein, which is located in the zona pellucida of eggs where it probably serves two functions: (A) binds to the heads of sperm and prevents the egg from binding an additional sperm. (B) shuts off the function of DNA polymerase and RNA polymerase. (C) directs both the slow and fast block to polyspermy. (D) stimulates the endospenn and initiates RNA synthesis. (E) stimulates protein synthesis and destroys the arcosome.
74. Suppose you know that the genotype of a male lion captured from a wild population is AaBb: You analyze a very large number of gametes from this individual and find all the gametes are of only two types: AB and ab. Vhich of the following is the most reasonable conclusion from this information? (A) The "A" gene and the "B" gene are probably located close together on the same chromosome. (B) There are multiple alleles present at the "B" locus but not at the "A" locus. (C) The parents of this individual were AABB and AABB. (D) Meiosis is not occurring in this individual. (E) Inbreeding is occurring in this individual.
75. Which of the following does NOT contribute to gas exchange in the human fetus? (A) Maternal blood and fetal blood flow next to each other in the placenta. (B) Maternal hemoglobin releases oxygen more easily than does fetal hemoglobin. (C) Oxygen is carried through the umbilical cord to the fetus. (D) The placenta keeps the oxygen levels of amniotic fluid very high. (E) Fetal hemoglobin binds oxygen more readily than does maternal hemoglobin.

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