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97年 - 97 高雄醫學大學_學士後西醫：普通生物學#78694

科目：學士後西醫-生物學 | 年份：97年 | 選擇題數：75 | 申論題數：0

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所屬科目：學士後西醫-生物學

選擇題 (75)

1. What type of process can produce coloration differences between a rooster and hens within one species? (A) balancing selection. (B) directional selection. (C) disruptive selection. (D) sexual selection. (E) stabilizing selection.
2. The primary cause for the decline in number of sharks and whales: (A) pollution. (B) habitat loss. (C) habitat fragmentation. (D) introduced species. (E) over harvesting.
3. Physiological ecologists study (A) nutrient cycling and energy flow through ecosystems. (B) exchanges of materials, energy, and organisms between communities. (C) physiological and anatomical mechanisms by which organisms deal with variation in their hysical and chemical environment. (D) physiological and anatomical mechanisms by which organisms deal with variation in their social environment. (E) None of the choices are correct.
4. In many species, the females can reproduce by the process of parthenogenesis. Then why do males persist in those species? (A) defense. (B) to increase the number of offspring produced. (C) to assist in rearing of the offspring. (D) to decrease the chance of infertility. (E) to ensure genetic diversity.
5. A group of subpopulations living in spatially isolated patches connected by exchange of individuals among patches is called a (A) micropopulation. (B) megapopulation. (C) isopopulation. (D) allopopulation. (E) metapopulation.
6. The acidity of the stomach contents triggers the small intestine to secrete a hormone known as (A) histones. (B) secretin. (C) TSH. (D) pepsin. (E) cholecystokinin, or CCK.
7. In which blood vessel is glucose concentration likely to vary the most? (A) coronary arteries. (B) abdominal artery. (C) hepatic vein, which drains the liver. (D) hepatic portal vessel. (E) pulmonary veins.
8. Which of the following is an example of countercurrent exchange? (A) The flow of water across the gills of a fish and that of blood within those gills. (B) The flow of air within the primary bronchi of a human and that of blood within the pulmonary veins. (C) The flow of blood in the dorsal vessel of an insect and that of air within its tracheae. (D) The flow of fluid out of the arterial end of a capillary and that of fluid back into the venous end of the same capillary. (E) The flow of water across the skin of a frog and that of blood within the ventricle of its heart. 
 9. What advantage does internal fertilization have compared with external fertilization? (A) Usually a smaller number of genes are present, which promotes genetic stability. (B) Usually many offspring are produced, ensuring survival of the species. (C) The time and energy devoted to reproduction is decreased. (D) The increased survival rate results in rapid population increases. (E) The smaller number of offspring often receive a greater amount of parental protection.
10. Which function associated with muscle would be most directly affected by low levels of calcium? (A) The muscle fiber resting membrane potential. (B) Muscle contraction. (C) The initiation of an action potential. (D) ATP hydrolysis. (E) Muscle fatigue.
11. Phylogenetic trees are best described as (A) true and inerrant statements about evolutionary relationships. (B) the most accurate representations possible of genetic relationships among taxa. (C) theories of evolution. (D) hypothetical portrayals of evolutionary relationships. (E) the closest things to absolute certainty that modern systematics can produce.
12. Estimates of the number of species present in a community (A) are not affected by the sampling effort devoted to estimation. (B) usually require only limited effort by ecologists. (C) can usually be made more easily by sampling only a single indicator taxon. (D) are all that is necessary to calculate species diversity. (E) must, to be useful, be based on standardized sampling techniques.
13. A major perturbation of the carbon cycle by human activity is associated with (A) release of carbon from carbonate rocks. (B) release of carbon from fossil fuel deposits. (C) removal of carbon from the atmosphere in the industrial production of fertilizers. (D) accelerated removal of carbon from the atmosphere by forests. (E) respiratory production of CO2 by the large human population.
14. Which statement about changing ecosystem properties during succession is FALSE? (A) Biomass increases. (B) Soil depths decrease. (C) Primary production increases. (D) Community respiration increases. (E) Stream spiraling lengths decrease.
15. The nuclear genomes of eukaryotes are composed of different categories of sequences. Repetitive sequences are one type of the categories. Which of the following is an example of highly repetitive sequences? (A) Histone gene cluster . (B) Ribosomal RNA genes. (C) Homologous genes. (D) Alu elements. (E) Multigene families.
16. If the genes of a cell's spliceosomes were mutated so the spliceosomes no longer action normally. Which of the following would occur? (A) A functional protein would be produced. (B) Transcription would stop. (C) A primary transcript would not be produced. (D) Translation would stop. (E) Intron(s) would stay in the mature mRNA. 
17. If the homeotic genes are mutated and cannot be expressed in an orchid during flower development. What would be the consequence? (A) The orchid will not develop cotyledons. (B) The orchid will die. (C) The orchid will become dwarf. (D) The orchid will develop flowers instead of leaves. (E) The orchid will develop leaves instead of flowers.
18. Adenylyl cyclase is to cAMP as ____________ is to AMP. (A) protein kinase C (B) phospholipase C (C) phosphodiesterase (D) phosphatase (E) Ras
19. For cloning of genomic DNA sequences, yeast artificial chromosome (YAC) and bacterial artificial chromosome (BAC) are two popular cloning vector systems. Which of the following is NOT correct? (A) A BAC would be circular and a YAC would be linear. (B) A YAC would have telomeres and a BAC would not. (C) A YAC would have a centromere and a BAC would not. (D) A YAC would be bound to histones in the cell and a BAC would not. (E) A BAC would contain a much larger DNA insert than a YAC.
20. Which of the following processes does NOT occur in the eukaryotic nucleus? (A) RNA splicing. (B) RNA polyadenylation. (C) DNA synthesis. (D) RNA capping. (E) Production of charged tRNAs.
21. Which of the following is true of chromatin? (A) Heterochromatin has more acetyl groups on the histones. (B) Heterochromatin has fewer methyl groups on the DNA. (C) Active genes are not bound by nucleosomes. (D) Sequence-specific DNA binding proteins can only activate transcription. (E) The chromatin structure on a particular gene may be different in different cells.
22. In E. coli, biosynthesis of tryptophan can be repressed. The repressor protein of the trp operon (A) is activated by the binding of tryptophan. (B) is inactivated by the binding of tryptophan. (C) is not affected by tryptophan. (D) is activated by the binding of free tRNA. (E) is only synthesized in the presence of tryptophan.
23. The major lipids found in membranes are (A) triacylglycerols and cholesterol. (B) cholesterol and sphingomyelin. (C) phospholipids, glycolipids, and cholesterol. (D) phospholipids and free fatty acids. (E) cholesterol, inositol, and glycolipids.
24. During glycolysis NADH is produced in the cytosol. Under aerobic conditions, what is the primary fate of this NADH? (A) It accumulates in the cytosol. (B) It diffuses into the mitochondria. (C) It transfers its reducing equivalents directly to NADP+. (D) The reducing equivalents are transferred by a shuttle system to the mitochondrial electron transport system. (E) It is used to reduce glucose to sorbitol.
25. Which of the following is NOT a post-translational modification? (A) Phosphorylation. (B) Glycosylation. (C) Acetylation. (D) Methylation. (E) Ubiquitination.
26. Which one of the following components is NOT necessary in an expression plasmid to be useful in the construction of recombinant DNA? (A) A multiple cloning site. (B) A tag coding sequence. (C) A promoter and a terminator. (D) Multiple cloning sites. (E) A coding sequence that is for antibiotic resistance.
27. Inheritance of phenotype sometimes does not directly involving the nucleotide is termed epigenetic inheritance. The epigenetic inheritance (A) only refers to genomic imprinting. (B) only effects female offspring. (C) only effects male offspring. (D) only refers to X inactivation. (E) can result in the expression of different alleles in different generations.
28. Which of the following is a possible application of tandem mass spectrometry? (A) Cell-specific gene expression. (B) Gene regulation. (C) Elucidation of metabolic pathways. (D) Tumor profiling. (E) Determination of the amino acid sequence of a peptide.
29. Which of the following is NOT correct regarding homeotic genes? (A) Homeotic genes encode transcription factors. (B) Homeotic genes are the only genes that contain the homeobox. (C) Homeotic genes are found in clusters called complexes. (D) The proteins encoded by homeotic genes contain DNA-binding domain. (E) Homeotic genes activate other developmental genes.
30. Ribosomes attached to rough ER are the site for synthesis of many types of secretary proteins. Which of the following mechanism is typically used for nascent protein insertion into the mammalian ER membrane? (A) Pretranslational. (B) Cotranslational. (C) Post-translational. (D) Cotranscriptional. (E) All of the above.
31. MPF is a cyclin-Cdk complex that was discovered first in Xenopus egg. Its activity fluctuates during cell cycle. Which of the following is NOT its characteristic? (A) Fluctuation of the cyclin concentration is the same as MPF activity. (B) The peak of the MPF activity is G2 phase. (C) The peak of the MPF activity is M phase. (D) The breakdown of the MPF occurs abruptly during M phase. (E) The activity of the MPF promotes mitosis by phosphorylating various proteins. .
32. Which of the following human DNA polymerases is responsible for replicating the mitochondrial DNA? (A) Alpha. (B) Beta. (C) Gamma. (D) Delta. (E) Theta.
33. Which one is the correct sequence of protein synthesis? 1. An aminoacyl-tRNA binds to the A site 2. A peptide bond forms between the new amino acid and a polypeptide chain 3. tRNA leves the P site, and the P site remains vacant 4. A small ribosomal subunit binds with Mrna 5. tRNA translocates to the P site(A) 5,4,3,2,1 (B) 2,4,5,1,3 (C) 4,1,2,5,3 (D) 4,1,3,2,5 (E) 1,3,2,4,5
34. Which one is correct for the description of transposons? (A) It occurs only in bacteria. (B) Some transposons do jump from one genome location to another, in what is called replicative transposition. (C) It plays little or no role in evolution. (D) Few can move to many alternative locations in the DNA. (E) None of the above.
35. Proto-oncogenes can change into oncogenes that cause cancer, which one can best explain the characteristic of proto-oncogenes? (A) p53 gene and ras gene belong to one of proto-oncogenes. (B) Pro-oncogenes are the normal cellular genes. (C) Cells produce proto-oncogenes as they age. (D) All of the above. (E) None of the above.
36. Which one of modifications is likely to alter the rate at which a DNA fragment moves through a gel during electrophoresis? (A) Altering the charges of the DNA fragment. (B) Increasing or decreasing the length of the DNA fragment. (C) Increasing the concentration of a gel. (D) Methylating the cytosine base within the DNA fragment. (E) All of the above.
37. Proteomics is a new kind of challenge because (A) the number of proteins in humans probably far exceeds the number of genes. (B) a cell’s proteins differ with cell type. (C) proteins are extremely varied in structure and chemical properties. (D) some proteins can not be easily analyzed due to their amounts or solubility. (E) All of the above.
38. Which of the following is considered an intrinsic isolating mechanism? (A) Gametic incompatibility. (B) Sterile offspring. (C) Ecological isolation. (D) Timing of courtship display. (E) All of the above.
39. If organisms A, B, C belong to the same phylum, but to different classes and if organism D, E, and F belong to the same class but to different orders, which one of pairs of organisms would be expected to show the least degree of structural homology? (A) A and B (B) C and F (C) A and F (D) B and D (E) D and F
40. Which one of the statements in the fact that some fungi are NOT beneficial to agriculture? (A) They recycle nutrients that are linked to dead organic matter. (B) They form mycoses on plants. (C) They contribute to the initial stages of soil formation from rock. (D) They may harbor photosynthetic partners that add nitrogenous compounds to the soils. (E) None of the above.
41. Which one of pairs is matched correctly for the germ layers from which animals evolve? (A) Ectoderm-muscle. (B) Mesoderm-outer covering. (C) Endoderm-internal linings of digestive tract. (D) Mesoderm-nervous system.  (E) Ectoderm-internal linings of liver and lungs.
42. A plant with high levels of tolerance to heavy metals was applied for mining minerals in potential profitable areas. Such an application of this plant is an example of (A) bioremediation. (B) nitrogen fixation. (C) helping locate suitable sites fro toxic waste storage. (D) minimizing the erosion of soil in arid lands. (E) None of the above.
43. Why is nitrogen fixation needed for the growth of some plants? (A) Nitrogen fixers are sometimes symbiotic with legumes. (B) Nitrogen fixation can only be done by certain prokaryotes. (C) Nitrogen fixation can produce metabolic energy for plants’ growth. (D) Fixed nitrogen is a limiting factor for plant growth. (E) Nitrogen-fixing capacity is varied in many different plants.
44. Which one is true of micronutrients in plants? (A) Overdoses of them can not be toxic. (B) They generally help in catalytic functions in the plants. (C) They are not required for a plant to grow from seed. (D) They are essential elements of small size and molecular weight. (E) They are the elements required in relatively big amounts.
45. How might a plant respond to cold stress EXCEPT (A) an alteration of membrane lipids. (B) the production of a specific solute “plant antifreeze” that reduces water loss. (C) excluding ice crystals from the interior walls. (D) converting of the fluid mosaic cell membrane to a solid mosaic one. (E) increasing the proportion of unsaturated fatty aid in the membranes.
46. Which one of the statements is FALSE for digestion and absorption of fat? (A) The requirement of emulsification. (B) The absorption of fat in the stomach. (C) The entrance of lymphatic system of the absorbed fat. (D) The hydrolysis of fat by lipase. (E) None of the above.
47. The function of plasma proteins is NOT related to which one of the following? (A) Oxygen transport. (B) Immune responses. (C) Transport of water-insoluble lipids. (D) Maintenance of blood osmotic pressure. (E) Blood clotting.
48. Which statement about the complement is true? (A) These proteins are involved in innate immunity only. (B) These proteins can be induced after the invasion of pathogens into the humans. (C) These proteins can only defense against the bacteria’s infection. (D) These proteins are selectively antimicrobial proteins. (E) None of the above.
49. Melatonin can participate in which one of the following items? (A) Skin pigmentation. (B) Monitoring day length. (C) Biological rhythms. (D) Reproduction. (E) All of the above.
50. Based on the gene and protein sequences that follow, what type of mutation-polypeptide effect has occurred? Normal gene: ATGGCCGGCCCGAAAGAGACC Mutated gene: ATGGCCGGCACCGAAAGAGACC Normal protein: Met-Ala-Gly-Pro-Lys-Glu-Thr Mutated protein: Met-Ala-Gly-Thr-Glu-Arg-Asp (A) Base addition-silent. (B) Base addition-none. (C) Base addition-missense. (D) Base addition-nonsense. (E) Base addition-synonymous.
51. What distinguishes a coelomate animal from a pseudocoelomate animal is that coelomates? (A) have a body cavity completely lined by mesodermal tissue, whereas pseudocoelomates do not. (B) have a complete digestive system with mouth and anus, whereas pseudocoelomates have a digestive tract with only one opening. (C) have a gut that lacks suspension within the body cavity, whereas pseudocoelomates have mesenteries that hold the digestive system in place. (D) contain tissues derived from mesoderm, whereas pseudocoelomates have no such tissue. (E) have a body cavity, whereas pseudocoelomates have a solid body.
52. The pathway leading to the perception of sound begins with the hair cells of the organ of Corti, (A) which rests on the tympanic membrane, coming in contact with the tectorial membrane. (B) which rests on the tectorial membrane, coming in contact with the basilar membrane. (C) which rests on the basilar membrane, coming in contact with the tectorial membrane. (D) which comes in contact with the tectorial membrane as a result of fluid waves in the cochlea causing vibrations in the round window. (E) which stimulates the tectorial membrane neurons leading to the auditory section of the brain.
53. A drug might act as a stimulant of the somatic nervous system if it (A) increases the sensitivity of the postsynaptic membrane to acetylcholine. (B) increases the release of substances that cause the hyperpolarization of the neurons. (C) stimulates the activity of acetylcholinesterase in the synaptic cleft. (D) makes the membrane permanently impermeable to sodium. (E) increases the sensitivity of the presynaptic membrane to acetylcholine.
54. Which of the following word pairs are MISMATCHED? (A) Random distribution: aggressive interaction. (B) Clumped distribution: attraction to a common source. (C) Regular distribution: antagonistic behaviors. (D) Large scale distribution: substantial environmental changes. (E) Small scale distribution: insignificant environmental changes.
55. Why would a scientist choose to use DNA analysis rather than isozyme analysis when investigating genetic variations? (A) Smaller sample size can be used for DNA analysis. (B) Repeat sampling over a period of time is possible. (C) Non-injurious to the organism. (D) Non-lethal. (E) All of the choices are correct.
56. Which of the following ecosystems has the highest net primary production (g/m2/yr): (A) Estuary. (B) Swamp and marsh. (C) Algal beds and reefs. (D) Tropical rain forest. (E) Temperate deciduous forest.
57. The frequency of antibiotic resistance increases in human populations which is the result of: (A) balancing selection. (B) disruptive selection. (C) directional selection. (D) sexual selection. (E) stabilizing selection.
58. Bioinformatics is the application of computational methods to the storage and analysis of enormous volumes of biological data. What is the BLAST program in NCBI which has been described by many biologists as the single most important tool in bioinformatics? (A) It is the tool to find out ESTs (expressed sequence tags). (B) It is the tool to figure out the protein-protein interaction. (C) It is the tool to translate the coding sequence. (D) It is the tool to align the sequences. (E) It is the tool to look the protein 3D structure.
59. Which of the following enzyme(s) is/are involved in the human nucleotide excision repair of UV-induced pyrimidine dimers? 1. endonucleases 2. DNA ligase 3. DNA polymerase 4. photoreactivating enzyme (DNA photolyase) (A) 1. (B) 1 and 3. (C) 2 and 4. (D) 1, 2 and 3. (E) All of them. .
60. Which of the following statement regarding the transcription initiation and RNA Pol I is NOT true? (A) The regulatory sequences include a core element and an upstream element. (B) RNA Pol I is responsible for synthesizing tRNAs and 5S-rRNA. (C) An active Pol I initiation complex contains multi-protein complexes assembled in order. (D) RNA Pol I is responsible for synthesizing rRNA. (E) RNA Pol I itself is a multi-subunit complex.
61. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of microRNAs? (A) MicroRNAs are found in eukaryotes including animals and plants. (B) MicroRNAs regulate gene expression by degradation of specific mRNAs. (C) MicroRNAs regulate gene expression by translational inhibition of specific mRNAs. (D) MicroRNAs usually act as negative regulator of gene expression. (E) MicroRNAs can function when they are short double-stranded RNA.
62. Stigmasterol, ergosterol, bile acids, vitamin D, cholesterol and share all the following common features EXCEPT (A) four-ring structure. (B) a carboxylic acid group. (C) contain asymmetric structure. (D) an extending carbon chain derived from the ring structure. (E) a hydroxyl group on first ring.
63. Meiosis is a special type of cell division. Which of the following mechanism(s) occur during meiosis guarantees that each haploid germ cell will have a unique combination of gene alleles that is distinct from each parent as well as every other haploid germ cell generated? (A) Recombination. (B) Reassortment. (C) Duplication. (D) A and B. (E) A, B and C.
64. Which of the following statements is true of Trichomonas vaginalis? (A) It is a prokaryote. (B) It lacks true mitochondria. (C) It has mitosomes. (D) It infects the human gastrointestinal tract. (E) It has cilia.
65. The rate of an enzyme catalyzed reaction: 1. can be determined by measuring the increase in product concentration with respect to time. 2. is usually dependent on temperature and pH. 3. at saturating substrate concentrations, becomes zero-order with respect to substrate. 4. is independent of the enzyme concentration. (A) 1. (B) 1 and 3. (C) 2 and 4. (D) 1, 2 and 3. (E) All of them.
66. Which one FALSELY describes a genomic library? (A) A genomic library must be performed with a restriction enzyme, a DNA ligase, and a reverse transcriptase. (B) A genomic library contains only coding sequences. (C) Plasmids can be used the cloning vector for making genomic libraries. (D) A genomic library is a “shotgun” approach-no single gene is targeted for cloning. (E) None of the above.
67. The ostrich and the emu look very similar and live in similar habitat. However, they are not very closely related. This is an example of (A) sympatric speciation. (B) divergent evolution. (C) exaptation. (D) adaptive evolution. (E) None of the above.
68. Which one of the statements about the domain of Archaea is correct? (A) They must inhabit solution are nearly 30 % salt. (B) They must not adapt to waters with temperatures above the boiling point. (C) Based on DNA analysis, they are probably more closely related to bacteria than to eukaryotes. (D) Archaean cell walls are composed of peptidoglycan. (E) None of the above.
69. Which of the following groups is matched with its members? (A) Proteobacteria-diverse gram-positive bacteria. (B) Chlamydias-extracellular parasites. (C) Spirochetes-helical heterotrophs. (D) Gram-positive bacteria-diverse pathogens whose endotoxins are components of their embrane. (E) Cyanobacteria-solitiary and no photosynthesis.
70. Lichens sometimes reproduce asexually using (A) soredia. (B) ascocarps. (C) basidiocarps. (D) conidophores. (E) aseptate fugal hyphae.
71. Which one of the statements is INCORRECT for the major difference between ectomycorrhizae and endomycorrhizae? (A) Endomycorrhizae but not ectomycorrhizae form a dense sheath over the surface of the root. (B) Ectomycorrhizae are found in about 90% of plant families. (C) Ectomycorrhizae do not penetrate root cells, whereas endomycorrhiza grow into the invaginations of the root cell membranes. (D) A and B only. (E) A, B and C. 
72. Auxin can be functioned as EXCEPT (A) herbicides. (B) the detection of photoperiod. (C) formation of adventitious roots. (D) phototropism. (E) cell elongation.
73. What does the infected plant produce in response to the attacking of a pathogenic fungus? (A) Phytoalexins. (B) Phytochrome. (C) Statoliths. (D) Antisense RNA. (E) None of the above.
74. It is estimated that humans can produce over 1.5 million different types of antibodies. Which of the following statements regarding this extraordinary variation is correct? (A) V and J domains of antibody light chains are randomly joined. (B) Random segments of DNA can be removed from antibody genes. (C) V and J domains of antibody heavy chains are randomly joined. (D) Cytosines in the variable regions of antibody genes can be converted to uracils via hypermutation. (E) All of the above.
75. Blue flower color (B allele) is dominant to white (b allele). In a population plants with white flowers (bb) are at a frequency of 0.04. What frequency of the alleles are for white flower color (b)? (A) 0.04 or 4%. (B) 0.16 or 16%. (C) 0.2 or 20%. (D) 0.8 or 80%. (E) 0.96 or 96%. 

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