30. You are observing a population of lizards when you notice that the number of adults has increased and is higher than previously observed. One explanation for such an observation would include ____.
(A) increased birth rate
(B) decreased emigration
(C) increased emigration
(D) increased immigration
(E) reduction in death rate

26. As cleavage continues during frog development, the size of the blastomeres ____. (A) increases as the number of the blastomeres increases (B) decreases as the number of the blastomeres increases (C) decreases as the number of the blastomeres decreases (D) increases as the number of the blastomeres stays the same (E) increases as the number of the blastomeres decreases

27. Which of the following best describes resource partitioning? (A) Two species can coevolve to share the same niche. (B) Competitive exclusion results in the success of the superior species. (C) Slight variations in niche allow similar species to coexist. (D) A climax community is reached when no new niches are available. (E) Differential resource utilization results in the decrease in species diversity.

28. The producers in aquatic ecosystems include organisms in which of the following groups? (A) photoautotrophs (B) plants (C) alga (D) cyanobacteria (E) A, B, C, and D are all correct

29. Overexploitation encourages extinction and is most likely to affect ____. (A) most organisms that live in the oceans (B) terrestrial organisms more than aquatic organisms (C) edge-adapted species (D) animals that occupy a broad ecological niche (E) large animals with low intrinsic reproductive rates

31. Which of the following pair of hormones have antagonistic effects? (A) thyroid hormone and parathyroid hormone (B) epinephrine and norepinephrine (C) glucagon and insulin (D) prolactin and oxytocin (E) androgen and estrogen

32. Which of the following is true of members of the phylum Cnidaria? (A) They are not capable of locomotion because they lack true muscle tissue. (B) They are primarily filter feeders. (C) They have either, or both, of two body forms: mobile polyps and sessile medusae. (D) They may use a gastrovascular cavity as a hydrostatic skeleton. (E) They are the simplest organisms with a complete alimentary canal (two openings).

33. The enzyme amylase can break glycosidic linkages between glucose monomers only if the monomers are in the α form. Which of the following could amylase break down? (A) glycogen, starch, and amylopectin (B) glycogen and cellulose (C) cellulose and chitin (D) starch and chitin (E) starch, amylopectin, and cellulose

34. Which of the following statements about intermediate filaments is NOT TRUE? (A) They are cytoskeletal fibers with a diameter of 8-12 nm. (B) Their constituent proteins are highly heterogeneous and express in a cell-type specific manner. (C) Their main function is to maintain cell shape and anchor organelles such as mitochondria. (D) They also express in nucleus and form nuclear lamina. (E) Vesicle can travel along intermediate filaments through interaction with motor proteins.

35. Which of the following statements about glycolysis is NOT TRUE? (A) Glycolysis takes place in cytosol. (B) The ATP made during glycolysis is generated by substrate-level phosphorylation. (C) Glycolysis will proceed in eukaryotic cells whether oxygen is present or absent. (D) During glycolysis, when glucose is catabolized to pyruvate, most of the energy of glucose is transferred to ADP, forming ATP. (E) In addition to ATP, the end products of glycolysis are NADH and pyruvate.

36. About Calvin cycle, which of the following statement is true? (A) reactions occur within the thylakoid membrane. (B) carbon fixation catalyzed by rubisco is the first step of the reaction. (C) reaction includes split water and release of oxygen. (D) the cycle builds sugar from smaller molecules by using ATP and the reducing power of electrons carried by NADH. (E) photophosphorylation occurs and generates ATP.